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Gammon is not racist

What about situations where a black person does have power.

lucillemara has made comments elsewhere about the ‘Macho-left’ being beastly towards those with mental illness.

Does black MH nurses racially abusing white MH patients (on the basis of their ‘whiteness’) count as racism according to the ‘power plus prejudice’ definition?
 
Obsession for (white) men
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What about situations where a black person does have power.

lucillemara has made comments elsewhere about the ‘Macho-left’ being beastly towards those with mental illness.

Does black MH nurses racially abusing white MH patients (on the basis of their ‘whiteness’) count as racism according to the ‘power plus prejudice’ definition?
Prejudice, discrimination, or antagonism directed against someone of a different race based on the belief that one's own race is superior.

The key word people seem to be missing is 'belief'. It doesn't matter if the belief is true or not, they merely have to hold the belief.

Poor unemployed rednecks in America thinking they are superior to Japanese citizens with well paid tech jobs doesn't means it's not racism just because the Japaneese worker actually has the power.
 
when I tried to link whiteness to colonialism people mocked me for it precisely because I was not using a linear or static definition of race - of course Irish people have always been white and therefore anti-Irish racism is an example of racism against white people!!! etc. that evidence is in the thread. people are equivocating between "racism against white people" as racism against anyone they would consider white and "racism against white people" as racism people experience for being white (far right talking point) - and insisting an an ahistorical presentist and idealist notion of race to make that work

would anti-irish racism exist without colonial violence? have black and asian people colonised britain?
Thing is though, I'm sure pretty much everyone on here knows the debate about whether race is connected to colonialism, whether 'privileged groups' can be subject to racism (and will have very different positions on it). But in the gammon thing its a situation where the definition of racism isn't really the issue. It was a mildly amusing idea when first used - the image of the 6 blokes in the question time audience - but then starts to look a bit dodgy the more it is used. Its imprecise, as this thread has shown: is it about attitudes, is it about a loss of certainties for a certain age group, is it about class? Similarly, has it gained traction post brexit? I like the point that was made earlier about it being used (problematically) by liberal, young activists.

The bit about whether gammon 'is racist' is up for debate - probably not much debate as gammon is a shit term anyway. But whether it is racism or racial prejudice to me isn't that important. The debate is/should be simply whether it has a particular ethnic/gendered group in mind - white men. It's about whether it has an ethnic target - but that gets lost if the whole thing has to meet a theory test in terms of colonialism. In other words, the issue of whether there is a 'left behind', middle aged group of shouty men get's lost and the whole things becomes an inter-left/liberal spat.
 
only if the victim's relationship whiteness is ambiguous and conditional, eg. irish, italians, ashkenazi jews, slavs, specific types of racism not just anti-white



the beneficiaries of colonial violence need to separate themselves from their victims and a good way to do that is by asserting their natural superiority in racial terms, the pseudoscience of race describes why certain classes are inherently suited to certain types of labour and deserving or not of violence. this goes back to aristotle but in modern terms European colonialism, slavery and genocide the most important factors.
Are all 'white' people beneficiaries of colonial violence? If so, are they all equal beneficiaries?

Are no 'non-white' people beneficiaries of colonial violence?

Are all 'non-white' people victims of colonial violence, and if so are they all equally victims?

I ask all this because your statements and characterisations seem to me a little simplistic
 
What's the point of just repeating these formulas?

because people claim they don't get it and keep asking me to clarify. because I think the abstract view of racism that seems to be the majority view here is actually dangerous and reactionary and should always be challenged.
 
britain is white supremacist and it's bizarre to see putative leftists using its legal system as an authority on racial violence

Even if that were true, it's not obvious how that links to your central point? And you've not replied to my question about the political utility of the conception of racism you've chosen.
 
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