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America going soft on capital punishment

Can you prove a murder is premeditated as opposed to manslaughter?
Im not sure what you mean? For murder you have to have "intent" to kill, (eta or seriously injur) the "mens rea"..manslaughter on the other hand can be caused by recklessness, so no intent is neccessary.
 
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Nope. Manslaughter is the verdict when intent to kill hasn’t been proven. Might have been there but can’t be proved beyond a doubt.
 
Nope. Manslaughter is the verdict when intent to kill hasn’t been proven. Might have been there but can’t be proved beyond a doubt.
You can be charged and convicted of manslaughter without being tried for murder. Example of the top of my head was the ferry disaster where the captain went too close to shore, then abandoned ship (Costa Concordia)..harsh giving him nearly 20 years for an accident, but we live in an age of retribution and revenge, not compassion, understanding and empathy.
 
This conviction was overturned and he was convicted of manslaugter..The precedent still stands.

R v Nedrick [1986] 1 WLR 1025 Court of Appeal

The appellant held a grudge against Viola Foreshaw. He went to her house in the middle of the night poured paraffin through her letter box and set light to it. A child died in the fire. The trial was held before the judgment was delivered in Moloney. The judge directed the jury as follows:

"If when the accused performed the act of setting fire to the house, he knew that it was highly probable that the act would result in serious bodily injury to somebody inside the house, even though he did not desire it - desire to bring that result about - he is guilty or murder."


The jury convicted of murder and the defendant appealed on the grounds of a mis-direction.

Held: There was a clear misdirection. The Court of Appeal reviewed the cases of Moloney and Hancock & Shankland and formulated a new direction from the two decisions.

Lord Lane CJ:

"the jury should be directed that they are not entitled to infer the necessary intention, unless they feel sure that death or serious bodily harm was a virtual certainty (barring some unforeseen intervention) as a result of the defendant's actions and that the defendant appreciated that such was the case."


R v Nedrick
 
Happened recently in a case very local to me. The killer got convicted of manslaughter after the charge of murder didn’t quite convince the jury. In this case it was a pretty close call I think and would seem wrong to have vastly different outcomes depending on which way the jury decided.
 
in a fit of rage, with intent (as defined above with both a subjective and objective element) but not neccessarily pre meditated as such..
 
That can be deemed manslaughter. Was in the case near me. No question serious harm was intended.

It can be deemed manslaughter, it can also be deemed murder. It is a fine line. But you do not have to have the intent to kill nor does a jury need to believe you had an intent to kill to find you guilty of murder.
 
i'm not entirely certain in what meaningful way that differs from the definition i posted above.

perhaps you could share with us a definition of murder which doesn't have the intent to kill in it.

If you intend to kill and seriously injure someone you can be done for attempted murder.
If you intend to seriously injure someone and do seriously injure them you cannot be done for attempted murder, GBH is where your conviction will settle.
If you intend to seriously injure someone and they die as a result of the serious injuries you cause, that will get you a murder conviction.

The difference between 5 years and mandatory life, I would suggest that is a meaningful difference.
 
It can be deemed manslaughter, it can also be deemed murder. It is a fine line. But you do not have to have the intent to kill nor does a jury need to believe you had an intent to kill to find you guilty of murder.
Are you sure? I thought intent to cause harm was a necessary attribute for it to be deemed murder.
 
If a defendant claims he didnt have intent to seriously harm or kill, (the subjective element) then its to the "reasonable man test" the objective test by the jury to decide if a reasonable person in that situation would recognise serious injury or death was a "virtual certainty".
 
If you intend to kill and seriously injure someone you can be done for attempted murder.
If you intend to seriously injure someone and do seriously injure them you cannot be done for attempted murder, GBH is where your conviction will settle.
If you intend to seriously injure someone and they die as a result of the serious injuries you cause, that will get you a murder conviction.

The difference between 5 years and mandatory life, I would suggest that is a meaningful difference.
so something along these lines would tick all your boxes
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so something along these lines would tick all your boxes
View attachment 120574


Dunno what point your trying to make here, you sneeringly asked: perhaps you could share with us a definition of murder which doesn't have the intent to kill in it.

And there clearly is a definition of murder that doesn't have the intent to kill in it, you've just fucking well posted it.

Arguing against yourself, you must get it from your pa.
 
Happened recently in a case very local to me. The killer got convicted of manslaughter after the charge of murder didn’t quite convince the jury. In this case it was a pretty close call I think and would seem wrong to have vastly different outcomes depending on which way the jury decided.

Single punch killers quite often get charged with murder and convicted of the lesser charge of manslaughter. Often hangs on whether the defendant bubbles himself up to OB. Always have a brief and always say nothing.
 
Dunno what point your trying to make here, you sneeringly asked: perhaps you could share with us a definition of murder which doesn't have the intent to kill in it.

And there clearly is a definition of murder that doesn't have the intent to kill in it, you've just fucking well posted it.

Arguing against yourself, you must get it from your pa.
I think you'll find it does have intent to kill in it, and your intent to cause serious harm. I'm not arguing against myself, your expansion of the definition should be in there. I'm curious, what should I have done in response to your 'no it isn't instead of asking you to share your view?
 
Oscar pistorious is a good example of a close call..he was convicted of manslaughter through the incompetent judge misunderstanding the concept of murder (and intent)..on appeal it was overturned to murder.
 
I think you'll find it does have intent to kill in it, and your intent to cause serious harm.

Yeah, and what does that have to do with:

you said:
all murders are necessarily premeditated as murder is defined as the unlawful premeditated killing of a human being.

you again said:
perhaps you could share with us a definition of murder which doesn't have the intent to kill in it.
 
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