Jean-Luc
Well-Known Member
I don't want to continue to derail this discussion but, for the record, I don't think you understand what the situation was in the early 1900s. Only men who had a minimum property qualification were allowed to vote. This disfranchised about a third of men. The main suffragette movement was demanding, not universal suffrage, but votes for women on the same terms as men. This would have still left most women without the vote and would in fact have increased the proportion of rich people in the electorate. That's why that particular demand was opposed (and should have been). As you point out, some trade unionists and others were demanding universal suffrage. That was more in line with working-class interests and should not have been opposed (and wasn't).while the suffragettes were frequently made up of middle class women there were trade union movements for the vote and this surely isn't a reason to reject the entire thing
Now back to the topic of the thread