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Prince Andrew, Duke of York, named in underage 'sex slave' lawsuit

That commentary seems to lead to the opposite conclusion to you. In particular:



This is saying that the malfeasance for which jointly liable codefendants are now released is procurement of a minor for sex. The nonce is being sued for something different, ie sex with a minor.


Not sure, I didn't write it, but I think you are misreading the tweet.

The contractual arguments are sufficiently strong for him IMV - the joint tortfeasor stuff looks actually to be of more assistance rather than less as well. The idea that these people weren't well advised and wouldn't have a very strong legal position is also a bit silly - it's the Royals/establishment.
 
Not sure, I didn't write it, but I think you are misreading the tweet.

The contractual arguments are sufficiently strong for him IMV - the joint tortfeasor stuff looks actually to be of more assistance rather than less as well. The idea that these people weren't well advised and wouldn't have a very strong legal position is also a bit silly - it's the Royals/establishment.
oh yeh it's the royals / establishment so they must have a strong position. doesn't follow. just look at the number of times successive governments have been found wanting in the courts: and you'd think if anyone kept to the law it'd be people responsible for making it.
 
Dershowitz is indeed on the side of the demons on many accounts.

Indeed, the guy is one of the lowest forms of scum on the planet - a sick, intensely evil freak. Good article on him in the Newyorker a few years back. What really shines the through the piece is that Dershowitz' extreme misogyny predates his embroilment in Epstein's child rape cult by many decades. Victim-shaming, anti-feminism and defending sexual predators has been a long staple of his.

 
Legalise is such unreadable drivel.
e.g.
15. Defendant objects to the definition of the terms “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” as overbroad, vague and ambiguous to the extent it incorporates persons
and entities of which Defendant has no knowledge. For purposes of responding to these Requests, Defendant understands “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” to
mean Jeffrey Epstein.

How can references to Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” be meaning other people, vague, over broad. FFS.
 
Indeed, the guy is one of the lowest forms of scum on the planet - a sick, intensely evil freak. Good article on him in the Newyorker a few years back. What really shines the through the piece is that Dershowitz' extreme misogyny predates his embroilment in Epstein's child rape cult by many decades. Victim-shaming, anti-feminism and defending sexual predators has been a long staple of his.


That's a long read, but worth it. This early passage in particular is interesting with reference to his own moral compass:

In a 1997 op-ed in the Los Angeles Times, he argued against statutory-rape laws, writing, “There must be criminal sanctions against sex with very young children, but it is doubtful whether such sanctions should apply to teenagers above the age of puberty, since voluntary sex is so common in their age group.” He suggested that fifteen was a reasonable age of consent, no matter how old the partner was. He has also argued against punishing men who hire prostitutes. In a 1985 article, in the Gainesville Sun, Dershowitz proposed that a john “who occasionally seeks to taste the forbidden fruit of sex for hire” should not be arrested. The nonprofit executive recalled his discussing the idea in class: “He said, ‘Prostitutes know what they’re doing—they should be prosecuted. But you shouldn’t ruin the john’s life over that.’

The article also sets out Giuffre's history, how she sought to put the Epstein past behind her and why she couldn't when five years later they tracked her down to Australia.
 
Legalise is such unreadable drivel.
e.g.
15. Defendant objects to the definition of the terms “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” as overbroad, vague and ambiguous to the extent it incorporates persons
and entities of which Defendant has no knowledge. For purposes of responding to these Requests, Defendant understands “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” to
mean Jeffrey Epstein.

How can references to Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” be meaning other people, vague, over broad. FFS.

He's objecting to how she defined those terms for the purposes of her requests. Without knowing how she's defined then, it's hard to say whether or not the objection is reasonable. If for example, she sought to define them as, say, including "all family, friends, associates, and staff, as well as associated businesses" that could be too wide.
 
Today's hearing at 1500. Anyone can listen by dialing in on +1 409-207-6997. The teleconference access code is 1532656#. But you must not record or broadcast.
The only question I have is "Will There Be a Trial?", I'm sure someone will announce it sooner or later, 15.00 there is 20.00 here.
 
That's a long read, but worth it. This early passage in particular is interesting with reference to his own moral compass:



The article also sets out Giuffre's history, how she sought to put the Epstein past behind her and why she couldn't when five years later they tracked her down to Australia.
It’s too long for me to read on a screen. I started but didn’t even get as far as the passage you quote.
 
He's objecting to how she defined those terms for the purposes of her requests. Without knowing how she's defined then, it's hard to say whether or not the objection is reasonable. If for example, she sought to define them as, say, including "all family, friends, associates, and staff, as well as associated businesses" that could be too wide.

But it doesn't read like that is my point. It looks like nonsense. If it said “Jeffrey Epsteidn and all other parties, that would make sense.

The logic of how that #15 is written is he objects to “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” as being too wide. When by any normal persons reading, that phrase refers to one person.
 
But it doesn't read like that is my point. It looks like nonsense. If it said “Jeffrey Epsteidn and all other parties, that would make sense.

The logic of how that #15 is written is he objects to “Jeffrey Epstein” and “Epstein” as being too wide. When by any normal persons reading, that phrase refers to one person.
No, I think you (and plenty of others in this thread) are misunderstanding.

There is some other document (issued by Guifre’s side) that has defined the phrase “Jeffrey Epstein” for some purpose. We don’t know what that other document says, but from context we know that it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” in a way that includes more than just the man himself. For example, maybe it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” to mean the man AND any business he ever set up.

So in THIS document, the lawyers are objecting that the definition of “Jeffrey Epstein” in the OTHER document is unfair. They are saying that “Jeffrey Epstein” should refer only to the man himself.

TL;DR: The point you are making means you actually agree with the nonce’s lawyers.
 
No, I think you (and plenty of others in this thread) are misunderstanding.

There is some other document (issued by Guifre’s side) that has defined the phrase “Jeffrey Epstein” for some purpose. We don’t know what that other document says, but from context we know that it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” in a way that includes more than just the man himself. For example, maybe it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” to mean the man AND any business he ever set up.

So in THIS document, the lawyers are objecting that the definition of “Jeffrey Epstein” in the OTHER document is unfair. They are saying that “Jeffrey Epstein” should refer only to the man himself.

TL;DR: The point you are making means you actually agree with the nonce’s lawyers.
This.
 
No, I think you (and plenty of others in this thread) are misunderstanding.

There is some other document (issued by Guifre’s side) that has defined the phrase “Jeffrey Epstein” for some purpose. We don’t know what that other document says, but from context we know that it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” in a way that includes more than just the man himself. For example, maybe it has defined “Jeffrey Epstein” to mean the man AND any business he ever set up.

So in THIS document, the lawyers are objecting that the definition of “Jeffrey Epstein” in the OTHER document is unfair. They are saying that “Jeffrey Epstein” should refer only to the man himself.

TL;DR: The point you are making means you actually agree with the nonce’s lawyers.

But aren't they also arguing that the agreement covers Andrew. SO on one hand objecting to what might be a very wide interpretation of the usage, Epstein
And on the other saying the agreement which presumably doesn't explicitly name Prince Andrew, does in fact cover him.

Fucking lawyers.
:rolleyes:
 
But aren't they also arguing that the agreement covers Andrew. SO on one hand objecting to what might be a very wide interpretation of the usage, Epstein
And on the other saying the agreement which presumably doesn't explicitly name Prince Andrew, does in fact cover him.

Fucking lawyers.
:rolleyes:

Is like saying it's not appropriate - for the purposes of trying to find things posted on the internet by Xenon - to define Xenon as 'Xenon and and their associates', whilst, at the same time, arguing that Xenon is captured within a group defined as 'people who post on Urban75'; there is no inherent contradiction.
 
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