no they don't, nor have I claimed they do, it's only an internet debate, but they're based on assertions reported from the Court of Appeal hearing, that she had curbed her drugtaking during her first pregnancy to avoid causing harm, and during the second one was repeatedly warned of the consequences of continuing to drink, yet drank daily to excess. I've yet to find any mention of whether abortion was considered during the pregnancy, so I haven't speculated about it in this case, but it's clearly available in general, and failure to take up the option while continuing to drink to excess is another indicator of deliberate harm.
The vast majority of pregnant women ensure they do not behave in ways that might cause harm. A few individuals choose to do so. How is it not deliberate?