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Nicola Sturgeon's time is up

So much movement between our two countries.

Aside from others joking about the GPO etc, why do hasn't Scotland hasn't had a 1916 moment or a more active resistance? What do you reckon?
That would take a long time to answer fully. The short answer is the two countries have very different histories.

Scotland did not have a tradition of nationalist militias like Ireland did. After the Jacobite risings, the Highlands clans were systematically demilitarised and the population subdued by laws and state military infrastructure. Place names surviving today attest to those times: Fort William, Fort Augustus, and the military roads that still form the basis of the road network.

After the 1820 Radical Rising, when the leaders were executed or deported, Scottish Home Rule sentiment was carried by the labour movement, and stayed there really until the 1970s when the SNP made electoral gains.
 
Does your definition of colonized involve your monarch inheriting your neighbouring country's throne after the last of her dynasty dies without an heir?
You’re the one who is making claims about colonisation. I’m not a nationalist. Im not getting into a poverty competition with you, that would be fruitless and puerile. But monarchs are not populations. That’s just basic stuff.
 
You’re the one who is making claims about colonisation. I’m not a nationalist. Im not getting into a poverty competition with you, that would be fruitless and puerile. But monarchs are not populations. That’s just basic stuff.
Oh come on, it's no fun if you don't rise to the bait. The transition from the Tudors to the Stuarts, and the dual monarchy which derived from it, indicates that the integration of Scotland into what would eventually become the British state occurred in a way that significantly different from that experienced by Ireland. Hence the very different patterns taken by nationalist politics in the two countries in the following centuries.

"At least the Irish got their country back, or most of it anyway".
 
Oh come on, it's no fun if you don't rise to the bait. The transition from the Tudors to the Stuarts, and the dual monarchy which derived from it, indicates that the integration of Scotland into what would eventually become the British state occurred in a way that significantly different from that experienced by Ireland. Hence the very different patterns taken by nationalist politics in the two countries in the following centuries.

"At least the Irish got their country back, or most of it anyway".
Yes, a different history. I said that.

But the claim you made was thatScotland wasn’t colonised, which does demand a definition of colonisation.

Yes, James VI of Scotland became also James I of England. But the Union of Crowns was not the Union of Parliaments. That happened just over a century afterwards. And there were particular circumstances around that, the biggest direct contributor being to do with the failure of the Scottish ruling class in their own colonisation project (Darien).

Before that James VI, though, carried out his own campaign of self colonisation. Rather than dividing his time between Edinburgh and London he made London his court and began the cultural self Anglization process of the Scottish ruling class, which led to the policy of suppressing the Gaelic and Scots languages for the population.

One of the differences between Scotland and Ireland was that the ruling class in Scotland was subsumed into the Unionist structures, as a client class. Home Rule sentiment in Scotland was a labour movement phenomenon. In Ireland, the Home Rule movement was replete with leaders from the Anglo-Irish Dublin elite. At least part of Ireland’s client ruling elite were, or became, nationalist. And that played a huge part in the different trajectories.

Class, in short, is not separable from the question.
 
Yes, a different history. I said that.

But the claim you made was thatScotland wasn’t colonised, which does demand a definition of colonisation.

Yes, James VI of Scotland became also James I of England. But the Union of Crowns was not the Union of Parliaments. That happened just over a century afterwards. And there were particular circumstances around that, the biggest direct contributor being to do with the failure of the Scottish ruling class in their own colonisation project (Darien).

Before that James VI, though, carried out his own campaign of self colonisation. Rather than dividing his time between Edinburgh and London he made London his court and began the cultural self Anglization process of the Scottish ruling class, which led to the policy of suppressing the Gaelic and Scots languages for the population.

One of the differences between Scotland and Ireland was that the ruling class in Scotland was subsumed into the Unionist structures, as a client class. Home Rule sentiment in Scotland was a labour movement phenomenon. In Ireland, the Home Rule movement was replete with leaders from the Anglo-Irish Dublin elite. At least part of Ireland’s client ruling elite were, or became, nationalist. And that played a huge part in the different trajectories.

Class, in short, is not separable from the question.
Except ruling class back in day most likely had estates in more than one part of the country.


In terms of land owners (whom have enjoyed democracy far longer than themselves that dont) Scotland is quite well represented in the Lords
 
Except ruling class back in day most likely had estates in more than one part of the country.
the local aristocracy here in kettering is a branch of scottish nobility. Theres an Earl of Dalkieth pub in town which I frown at as I pass on my way to better establishments.
 
the local aristocracy here in kettering is a branch of scottish nobility. Theres an Earl of Dalkieth pub in town which I frown at as I pass on my way to better establishments.
And the Dukes of Leinster had lands in Oxfordshire.

Any attempt to simply equate class and ethnicity is fraught with danger.
 
I remember back in the day Ernesto used to equate class historically with Anglo-Norman rule, and while there is of course some truth in it any strictly ethnic reading of it was dodgy then and is dodgy now. Class is the lens through which to read this, not ethnicity.
 
I remember back in the day Ernesto used to equate class historically with Anglo-Norman rule, and while there is of course some truth in it any strictly ethnic reading of it was dodgy then and is dodgy now. Class is the lens through which to read this, not ethnicity.
Logically, that means that the English were also colonised. The way that the Scottish working classes have been exploited isn't any different from the way the English working classes have been exploited.
 
Logically, that means that the English were also colonised. The way that the Scottish working classes have been exploited isn't any different from the way the English working classes have been exploited.
It’s complicated, isn’t it? And for clarity, anyone who says “the English” subjected, ruled or colonised either Ireland or Scotland, or indeed anywhere else, is a wankatron twat.
 
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