Regarding this idea that Duggan was targeted for death, again - what would the motive be? Because he was "one of the 42(?) most violent criminals in Europe"
And related to this, I have another question - have any details of his police records etc (if any) been released? i.e. if it's been said that he was a "violent gangster" did he have any convictions? Given that info about de Menezes (e.g. overstayed his visa IIRC) was leaked to the police-friendly media as smears, surely if Duggan had a criminal record it would by now have been leaked? Has it? I'm genuinely asking because I don't recall having seen this, but I may have missed it.
This stuff about his being a member of a gang in itself doesn't hold much water for me, IMHO belonging to a gang can sometimes just mean living on a certain estate. I've seen references to his having been involved in two violent gun crimes...but where did this (mis)information come from if it isn't a matter of record? False rumours can be leaked, be disseminated in the press, possibly refuted months later, but the damage is done, and then the original 'facts' are repeated on Twitter... Anyone got any links please?
But anyway, his being or not being a criminal doesn't or shouldn't have any bearing on whether it's permissible to shoot dead an unarmed man (if he was unarmed, as seems to have been the case). But it may have helped to sway the jury..?