Any fair-minded and literate person can easily see that the entire thrust of my critique is that the modern Western world is unique in both its ethical rationalization of usury and in the extent of its practice theroef.
Now any fair minded and literate person can read for themselves your own words on this. Let's remind ourselves of what you said about religion and usury:
But I trust no-one will deny that, of all human activities save perhaps murder alone (with which it was equated by Cicero among others), usury has everywhere, and at all times, universally been regarded with the greatest possible hatred and contempt by the people, and condemned on ethical grounds by every major religion (Judaism very much included), and condemned on rational grounds by every major philosopher up to and of course including K. Marx. There are excellent reasons for that, as we are now learning.
I notice you've changed your mind a bit since then. Would you like to go through your previous post and point out the bits you got wrong for us all? After all, much of what you're saying later on in the thread is based on the premises you've just put out. These are the foundations your arguments rest on.
You said, everywhere, at all times, universally - you specfically included the west until people started to question you, then you changed your mind and decided that it wasn't universal, everywhere, and at all times, but that it means everywhere except the West except in modern times - modern in this instance meaning "the last 4 centuries" which is a pretty generous definition of modern for this topic. Just like when you claimed industrial wage-slavery no longer existed, you tried wriggling your way out of that that with "ah but I only meant the west" once people challenged you on it. But that's ok because even in the west the era of industrial wage-slavery is still very much with us. You dropped that topic afterwards and got into some more bullshit regarding the left in Iran and Turkey, but perhaps we should revisit it?
If you can't even acknowledge that much, you're either illiterate or unfair-minded, and in any case unworthy of serious treatment or regard at any later date.
I'll acknowledge what's obvious - that you're selectively adding and revising bits of your theory after the various factual errors you've made start getting pulled to pieces. Doesn't work like that. Infact, like I pointed out earlier you actually contradict yourself with this stuff, it's like watching a 3rd rate Jazzz in action. case in point here:
For fuck's sake, how difficult is it to use Google? These are not matters of dispute we are having here. Calvin says:
“I must reiterate that
when I approve of some usury, I am not extending my approval to all its forms."
What's that? Is that the leader of a historic religious order approving usury? Shurely shome mistake? You said no such thing existed!
I know full-well that the Calvinists disliked ususry, but they accepted it, with certain safeguards. Infact the quote you've just listed backs this up. So there you go, case closed, there's one religious group that approved of usury - Calvinists.
Well you're wrong. The early modern period runs until 1640. Or 1688. Or 1789. But in any case you are wrong.
I accept that, and I never disputed it as "modern" - my criticism (which you ignored) was that it's misleading. What I'm saying is that when you come out with statements along the lines of "
usury has never been tolerated by any society or religion except the modern west" it has a somewhat different impact to saying
"usury has never been tolerated by any society or religion except for the last 400 years of protestantism in western europe" you see how the two statement differ? One implies that religious groups accepting usury is a recent phenomenon, within living memory, the other one demonstrates how in actual fact usury has been reconciled with religion for centuries in our part of the world. This is you hiding your bullshit behind semantics, trying to use a specific definition of the word "modern" in an unsuitable context to get away from the fact you're demonstrably wrong. For what it's worth phil I did a few "modern history" modules myself as an undergrad and we started at the fall of the roman empire, not 1640.
You did the same thing with the Levellers too btw.
It's also what I said regarding your use of the phrase "the beginning of the capitalist era" because the beginning of the capitalist era is usually bookmarked around 1780-85 by most historians, with other historians locating tendencies of capitalist development on a smaller scale going back to the late 17th century that were part of a predominantly feudal economy (Ellen Meiksens Wood is the best place to start with this if you want to learn more btw) even using this very early kind of agrarian capitalism as "the beginnings of the capitalist era" which itself is incorrect, you're still off by a fair bit.