ItWillNeverWork
Messy Crimbobs, fellow humans.
Yes you do
No I don't. Please get the fuck on with it.
Yes you do
You need to get a room and obsess about Pickman's alone in it, where others are not.
Don't waste your time. Srsly.
And now Dwyer is 'banning' people.
Can we agree that human beıngs ınevıtably ımpose a value or meanıng on sense data ın the act of experıencıng ıt?
phildwyer said:And that the ımposıtıon of thıs value or meanıng ıs the defınıtıve characterıstıc of human conscıousness?
Oh God, it's been resurrected.
Let's just waıt to see ıf anyone objects to what we have establıshed so far.
Remember our aım here ıs to convınce everyone (except the banned ıdıot Pıckman's), and to convınce them completely, so that there ıs absolutely no room for doubt left.
What silly twunt revived this shite then?
*calls in air strike*
I think Phil thinks he is applying Kant's philosophy, but he is mistaken about Kant's philosophy. He conflates Kant's concepts with Kant's intuitions. For Kant our observations require a priori intutions of time, space, causality and number not a priori concepts of time, space, causality and number. Intuitions are singular representations, not families of representations like concepts. Kant's synthetic a priori knowledge is not knowledge of concepts and he is not asserting that concepts exist prior to observation. Indeed he states that, "a concept without a percept is empty". What Phil is presenting us with is, is Plato's theory of forms not Kant's transcendental idealism and this has even less to do with Hegel or Marx who rejected Kant's philosophy anyway.
Phil's argument is unconvincing to everyone because it is just a bad rendering of Kant. Phil needs to argue his basic Platonic point in Platonic terms. He needs to argue for the existence of ideal forms, not just assert them as a corrollary of Kant's theory of a priori intuitions.
Actually Pıckman's, I'm goıng to have to ban you from thıs thread.
You have demonstrated many tımes that your only purpose here ıs to dısrupt our dıscussıon. Nobody fınds you amusıng. And basıcally you are an ıdıot.
You are welcome to read along wıth the rest of us. But you are forbıdden from postıng on thıs thread untıl further notıce.
I think Phil thinks he is applying Kant's philosophy, but he is mistaken about Kant's philosophy. He conflates Kant's concepts with Kant's intuitions. For Kant our observations require a priori intutions of time, space, causality and number not a priori concepts of time, space, causality and number. Intuitions are singular representations, not families of representations like concepts. Kant's synthetic a priori knowledge is not knowledge of concepts and he is not asserting that concepts exist prior to observation. Indeed he states that, "a concept without a percept is empty". What Phil is presenting us with is, is Plato's theory of forms not Kant's transcendental idealism and this has even less to do with Hegel or Marx who rejected Kant's philosophy anyway.
Phil's argument is unconvincing to everyone because it is just a bad rendering of Kant. Phil needs to argue his basic Platonic point in Platonic terms. He needs to argue for the existence of ideal forms, not just assert them as a corrollary of Kant's theory of a priori intuitions.
I disagree fundamentally.
Value and meaning are what we articulate. The act of making sense of sense data does not require the ability to articulate the act of making sense of sense data. A dog makes sense of his world. A dog can even know facts about the world. But a dog cannot articulate what they know. They do not intellectualise using abstract concepts.
Is the meaning and value imposed? Do we even know what meanings and values we attach to events until we articulate them? The meanings and values that we attach are related to our interests which can change with context. The meaning and the value are not bound up with the act of observation.
For example you can observe a masked man accross the road. You could perhaps relate this fact because the man worried you and what was significant to you was the distance between you and the man. But then again you might relate that the man was standing in front of the bank this time and you relate this because you are now concerned about a possible bank robbery. So there are two different but non competing conceptualisations and there are perhaps more which you have not even conceived of yet. The way you conceptualise is not determined by the observation and the observation is not determined by the sense data.
I don't think concepts are general ideas, by that I mean I don't think the formation of concepts is a matter of generalisation. A keyboard can be the board of keys of letters, numbers and symbols that you use to input data into a computer. It can also be a musical intrument. But we wouldn't call the control panel in a aeroplane's cockpit a "keyboard". How do we know how the generalisation works? We don't. It is partly down to human convention to see how to apply a concept. Concepts cannot be seperated from human understanding and human convention. We do not know all the applications of a concept when we apply it. Suppose a keyboard-like device is invented, how do we know whether it is a keyboard? When we decide, when the convention becomes fixed. Concepts are not seperable from their application. You could say a concept is a very particular thing with as much sense as saying that a concept is a general thing.
It's nonsense to say we apply concepts to sense data.
I don't see how the last sentence follows from the rest of what you say here. I use 'concept' ın the technıcal sense of Begrıff. To say that ıt ıs a generlızatıon ıs sımply a tautology ın thıs sense.
But anyway, I would argue that all concepts are necessarıly generalızatıons, and I see nothıng ın your example to refute thıs. If we subsume the cockıpt's control panel under the concept of 'keyboard' that ıs one generalızatıon, ıf we call ıt a 'pıano' that ıs another generalızatıon. Both are generalızatıons.
phildwyer said:Faır enough. I should have saıd that we experıence sense data through concepts.
Now hang on a second, I mentıoned neıther Plato nor Kant,
To be honest phil, the objections that I raising might not be important for your argument. There is a much more basic error in the OP. You suggest that (economic) value must be perceptable in a cow.
What? Not even in the second sentence of your opening post?
Not necessarily a cow. Could be any object of exchange. The basic point is to prove that human beings do not perceive the world as it actually is, but rather their own ideas about the world.
Once that has been proved, the rest should be fairly straightforward.