beesonthewhatnow
going deaf for a living
Oh shit.
The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?"
That's where we went wrong, LBJ.
Hall-e-fucking-lujah
Oh shit.
The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?"
That's where we went wrong, LBJ.
I have 2 children. One is a boy. What is the probability that I have two boys?
Order: declared; undeclared
Possible combinations:
BB
BG
GB
P(GB) = 0
P(BB) = .5
P(BG) = .5
Hall-e-fucking-lujah
There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements. If the other child is a boy then he has two boys, and vice-versa.Oh shit.
The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?"
That's where we went wrong, LBJ.
Plane crashes into the mountain. No survivors.
It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.Oh shit.
The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?"
I can claw back a glimmer of pride by knowing that I was answering the wrong question right, instead of the right question wrong
It's not, the question is about the probabilty of "two boys"this is a question about one child, not two.
There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements.
It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.
If the other is a girl, you don't have two boys.
If the other is a boy, you do have two boys.
There's a confusion here as to the question being asked. I repeat, this is a question about one child, not two.
You're right, they are the same question. Where you're wrong is in saying that two-child families with two boys are just as common as two-child families with a boy and a girl. They're not.It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.
If the other is a girl, you don't have two boys.
If the other is a boy, you do have two boys.
There's a confusion here as to the question being asked. I repeat, this is a question about one child, not two.
really?There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements. If the other child is a boy then he has two boys, and vice-versa.
They are once you've eliminated the possibility of two girls, which the OP does.You're right, they are the same question. Where you're wrong is in saying that two-child families with two boys are just as common as two-child families with a boy and a girl. They're not.
Ooh this thread has been quite busy since I last looked. This is the black and white card things again isn't it? It's not 3 cards, it's 6 sides.
really?
then I might have to restart the failwagon and continue making a fool of myself
You are confused. "what is the chance the other one is also a boy?" is the same problem as it asks precisely the same question.There is a difference. It is a very important difference, because it gives different answers. This is fairly basic probability theory.
Thankyou, Jazzz.You are confused. "what is the chance the other one is also a boy?" is the same problem as it asks precisely the same question.
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.They are once you've eliminated the possibility of two girls, which the OP does.
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.
If I have two children then I either had
BB
GG
BG
GB
It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.
But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.
Declaring birth order irrelevant does not change the probability - it just makes BG twice as likely because you're lumping it in with GB.I have two chlidren.
P(at least 1 boy) = .75
P(two boys) = .25
P(only 1 boy) = .5
I have two children and one is a boy.
BB
BG
GB
You now have to choose an order. Declaring that 'one is a boy' knocks out either BG or GB, because the one declared is not put back into the mix. He is eliminated from your consideration.
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.
If I have two children then I either had
BB
GG
BG
GB
It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.
But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.
That's not the OP. What you are talking about is the chances of choosing a boy if you pick one of the two at random.
I repeat:
That is not what the OP is asking.
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.
If I have two children then I either had
BB
GG
BG
GB
It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.
But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.
really?
then I might have to restart the failwagon and continue making a fool of myself
Arrrrgh!!!
I repeat, this is a very well known problem. We're not misinterpreting it - you are.
poor motherIt helps to understand this if you imagine putting the boy behind door 1, and then the other child behind door 2 or door 3, with the other door having a goat behind it.