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Puzzle: I have two children ...

I have 2 children. One is a boy. What is the probability that I have two boys?

Order: declared; undeclared

Possible combinations:

BB
BG
GB

P(GB) = 0
P(BB) = .5
P(BG) = .5

Where did you get those probabilities from?

There are 4 equally likely families with two children:

BB
GG
BG
GB

p=1/4 for each possibility

As soon as I know there is at least one boy we have:

BB
GG
BG
GB

There are now only three possibilities, all still equally likely, and only one of them has a second boy.

if you're going to collapse the birth order as irrelevant (which it is), you still have to assign the correct probabilities to each family mix.

If you can't handle the theory, try doing it empirically. Toss some coins and keep records of each pair of throws. Then count how many pairs had a head in them, and how many of these had two heads.
 
You were right... Tell your sister, you were riiight...

Star-Wars-Darth-unmask_l.jpg
 
Oh shit.

The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?" :facepalm:

That's where we went wrong, LBJ.

Plane crashes into the mountain. No survivors.
There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements. If the other child is a boy then he has two boys, and vice-versa. ;)
 
Oh shit.

The second part is not "What is the probability that the other child is a boy" but "What is the probability you have two boys?" :facepalm:
It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.

If the other is a girl, you don't have two boys.

If the other is a boy, you do have two boys.

There's a confusion here as to the question being asked. I repeat, this is a question about one child, not two.
 
There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements.

There is a difference. It is a very important difference, because it gives different answers. This is fairly basic probability theory.


It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.

If the other is a girl, you don't have two boys.

If the other is a boy, you do have two boys.

There's a confusion here as to the question being asked. I repeat, this is a question about one child, not two.

There is confusion here certainly, and it's about 12" from your screen.
 
Ooh this thread has been quite busy since I last looked. This is the black and white card things again isn't it? It's not 3 cards, it's 6 sides.
 
It is the same question, though. You are told one is a boy, so the probability that the other is a boy is the same as the probability that you have two boys.

If the other is a girl, you don't have two boys.

If the other is a boy, you do have two boys.

There's a confusion here as to the question being asked. I repeat, this is a question about one child, not two.
You're right, they are the same question. Where you're wrong is in saying that two-child families with two boys are just as common as two-child families with a boy and a girl. They're not.
 
There's no difference, the problem is the same with both statements. If the other child is a boy then he has two boys, and vice-versa. ;)
really?

then I might have to restart the failwagon and continue making a fool of myself :D
 
You're right, they are the same question. Where you're wrong is in saying that two-child families with two boys are just as common as two-child families with a boy and a girl. They're not.
They are once you've eliminated the possibility of two girls, which the OP does.
 
There is a difference. It is a very important difference, because it gives different answers. This is fairly basic probability theory.
You are confused. "what is the chance the other one is also a boy?" is the same problem as it asks precisely the same question.
 
I have two chlidren.
P(at least 1 boy) = .75

P(two boys) = .25

P(only 1 boy) = .5


I have two children and one is a boy.

BB
BG
GB

You now have to choose an order. Declaring that 'one is a boy' knocks out either BG or GB, because the one declared is not put back into the mix. He is eliminated from your consideration.
 
They are once you've eliminated the possibility of two girls, which the OP does.
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.

If I have two children then I either had

BB
GG
BG
GB

It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.

But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.
 
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.

If I have two children then I either had

BB
GG
BG
GB

It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.

But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.


That's not the OP. What you are talking about is the chances of choosing a boy if you pick one of the two at random.

I repeat:

That is not what the OP is asking.
 
I have two chlidren.
P(at least 1 boy) = .75

P(two boys) = .25

P(only 1 boy) = .5


I have two children and one is a boy.

BB
BG
GB

You now have to choose an order. Declaring that 'one is a boy' knocks out either BG or GB, because the one declared is not put back into the mix. He is eliminated from your consideration.
Declaring birth order irrelevant does not change the probability - it just makes BG twice as likely because you're lumping it in with GB.

If I had BG, then I have one son, not two. If I had GB, then I have one son not two. If I had BB than I have two sons.
 
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.

If I have two children then I either had

BB
GG
BG
GB

It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.

But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.

If people can't get their heads around this then any further arguing is pointless.
 
That's not the OP. What you are talking about is the chances of choosing a boy if you pick one of the two at random.

I repeat:

That is not what the OP is asking.

Arrrrgh!!!

I repeat, this is a very well known problem. We're not misinterpreting it - you are.
 
No, they're not. You're not considering the probability of each outcome.

If I have two children then I either had

BB
GG
BG
GB

It's 50/50 that my children are the same sex.

But if you know that one of my children is a boy, I cannot have had two girls. There are now only three possibilities and they are all equally likely. Only one of them has me with two boys.

You know that one child can't be a girl so how can you have both GB and BG?
 
really?

then I might have to restart the failwagon and continue making a fool of myself :D

:D

Really no shame, you are thinking about it and there is really awkward territory here.

Allow me to state the problem two different ways

Person 1 "I have two children"
Person 2 "Is one a boy born on a Tuesday?"
Person 1 "yes"

or

Person 1 "I have two children"
Person 2 "What is the sex and day of birth of the eldest child?"
Person 1 "it is a boy born on a Tuesday"

these have different answers. In the latter, it's just 50/50, the second child is indeed just independent.
 
It helps to understand this if you imagine putting the boy behind door 1, and then the other child behind door 2 or door 3, with the other door having a goat behind it.
 
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