118118 said:I have only read a secondary text on the Husserl's philosophy of arithmetic, but he abondoned it so I wasn't looking for all the answers. But that is where most of my feelings on the subject come from.
I’ll come back to some of the points raised in some of the above posts. At the minute I’m reading up on Husserl. There is a great irony here. I’ve read Frege but not Husserl, and I think 118118 has read Husserl but not Frege. Yet in our disputes I take the side of Husserl and 118118 takes the side of Frege!
A lot of the things I have been saying are related to the use of the notion of identity in mathematics. Two things are identical if and only if you can substitute one for the other. This is certainly what happens in mathematics, but is there a deep meta-mathematical reason why this should be?
When I talked about a type of arithmetic where no two units are the same, I was thinking specifically of violating Frege’s belief that you can substitute any unit for another. In the arithmetic I was talking about you would have to keep track of the different units. So 1+1’ and 1+1’’ would have to be labeled by two different ‘2’ symbols. There is nothing to be said in favour of this new arithmetic in terms of practical mathematics - the statements in it would be horrendously baroque - but in terms of mathematical ontology I can’t see why it is any less valid than the usual arithmetic.
This essay is of interest:
http://perso.orange.fr/rancho.pancho/Sub.htm
In particular:
“In another argument, Husserl alludes to the problems that arise when one begins examining the grounds for determining the equality of two objects (pp. 108-09). One can declare two simple, unanalyzed objects equal without much further ado, he notes. But there is a certain ambiguity in ordinary language with regard to complex objects. If two objects are the same, then it follows that they must have all their properties in common. But the inverse does not seem to hold. Sometimes two objects have their properties in common and we still do not say that they are the same.”
Also my reading of Stanford Encyclopaedia of Philosophy on Husserl indicates that Husserl would not have had any problems with true statements about fictional entities (even including Pegasus!):
“Even objectless (i.e., empty) intentional experiences like your thought of the winged horse Pegasus have content. On Husserl's view, that thought simply lacks a corresponding object; the intentional act is merely “as if of” an object.”
http://perso.orange.fr/rancho.pancho/Sub.htm
Again I think I'm in agreement with Husserl here and 118118 is in disagreement.
However I’ve got to say that I don’t really understand phenomenology and ‘intentional experiences’. I’m immediately sceptical about such things as ‘units of consciousness’. Why should consciousness come in units?