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working class, what does it mean?

'Middle-class' isn't really a Marxist turn of phrase, and incorporates management/policing classes as well as those who own their own businesses. The working classes are any form of subcontracted labour who are employed to do a job, the difference between them and a 'professional' often being (as displayed in this thread) their relationship to their task and the means of their production.

I think you need to read Capital Volume 3 and theories of surplus value on the 'commerial proletariat' i would have thought that the greatest living marxist would have done so already.

Of course, what this pure relations to MOP approach means is that m/c people like hooverbag with different class interest from the w/c get to pretend that they're w/c and then impose their own class intersts as those of the w/c - we've all seen where m/c leadership of the 'labour movement' has led us.
 
lmao @ teh 'blindfolds of prejudice' comment

Ok Aldo, time to tear you apart:

Aldi-brain said:
*If there is no capital, there is no workplace there is no need for workers.
*If there are no workers, there can even be no construction of the very workplace there can't be gathered capital to pay for its very construction for its workings, for the workers.

Your first statement in the renunciation of Marx: a declaration that labour cannot exist seperate of capital - that without capital, man may not create produce, as he is in need to the capital required to make the initial investment!

Anyone with half-a-brain can see the circular logic here. Were this statement correct, mankind wouldn't be here right now. We'd have all starved to death due to lack of capital. Those peasants eking out a subsistence lifestyle in the countryside would have just voluntary lain around 'til they died - unable to prduce wealth without an initial influx of cash.

You make a correct statement later on - wealth already exists. Well, it's almost right; potential wealth already exists in the resources which we have at our disposal. A field (already in existance) gives the potential for crops. Crude oil the potential for petrol. However, without investing human labour into these projects that wealth remains unrealised.

Before capitalism these resources could be used as and when human beings could galvanise and organise themselves around a project enough to do it. Money is a human invention - capital is a human invention. It wasn't just floating around on the wind before any of us arrived on the planet, we made it. And we made it after we'd produced a whole lot of wealth without it. For a long time.

So, you're right:- in a capitalist society capital investment needs to occur before wealth can be created. In a society where not all human resources are considered 'private property', and in which the fruits of the earth are owned in common, capital is not needed to make any 'transactions'. You can just get down to business and make that wealth, dawg. In reality, therefore, you are wrong (I added the first sentence for the flow ;)).

In what way do the owners of the means of production live anything other than a parasitic existence? They are uneccessary - the workers create the wealth, yet recieve marginal benefits from it. In order to employ workers, capitalist must pay them less than the capital value of the labour they give. This is a categorical example of exploitation.

Mouldy-brain said:
Individual relationships are what humans allow or want them to be. Artificial divisions in societies are created to keep societies rolling and developing within more or less controlled/controllable patterns.

You are quite right - ironic that you pertain to be a member of a church - the greatest artificial division of all between the people. But class isn't an artificial division: it distinguishes itself from other forms of social divisions, because it's real - it's palatable. Tangible. It's not like God, or nationality, 'tradition', culture - it's acutely present in the real, material world. Its physical presence prevents everyday people from accessing the resources of the world - vast areas of land are reserved for the rich in the form of golf resorts, leisure clubs, private dance halls, gentlemen's clubs... These are places and things which most people will never see. They do not have the capital.

In essence, capitalism is a different form of 'class system' in that rather than being based upon the rigid restrictions of birth, inheritance, acceptance into some kind of institution or gender, it's based upon the universal value of money. Moolah. Hey, anyone can get money if they work hard enough, right? Anyone can get rich if they screw over enough people. But no - even under the social leveller that is capitalism, which sweeps before it all that was sacred, all that distinguished the masses from the classes, class becomes entrenched. Elite schools, exam systems, old school tie networks, access to social resources - all these things mean that even the capitalist system developes its own ruling class, and that ruling class sets about preserving itself and inhibiting the entry of new members. Class becomes once again entrenched. You claim that people artificially define themselves according to their class - I'll remember that when I'm next standing in the cold outside the Ritz, looking in. Right before I get arrested for loitering.

Of course we're all just human beings - what levelling ideals and realities there are entwined in the capitalist system (in its destruction of rational perversions such as 'faith', 'knowing your place', etcetera) prove that to us moreso now than under any other economic system. What you're saying, though, is that the system doesn't exist - that next time you walk into a shop and there's a pot of caviar you can't afford to buy, you're mentally deluding yourself if you think you can't just pick it right up off the shelf and walk out the store. You're actually espousing anarchist sentiments. All Marx is saying is that though you may have the ability to take the caviar, the system forbades you the 'right' and labels your action 'theft' - and will use physical force to suppress you. That is the artificial reality created by society, not a Marxist analysis of it.

Mouldy-Brian said:
Like others before and after him, Marx argued against exploitation of the poor and had in his time and age reason enough to do so, yet this exploitation was not a new element in human society. It only appeared under a shape and form more apparent and directly visible due to the factor “industrialism”.

Wrong: 'industrialism' occurred because of the existance of a new class - the Proletariat. A class of people with no trades, and nothing to live on but their labour. For a modernesque example of this process, you can look at Russia in the latter half of the 1800s (in particular the emancipation of the serfs). In this instance, it was seen that the backwards feudal economy of Russia (in which the vast bulk of the population were peasants, self-sufficient and living as individual units on the land) created a self-fulfilling cycle of backwardness economically. Whilst the peasants were tied to the land (under serfdom they were the legal property of their 'landlord') there was no-one to work in the factories - with no-one to work in the factories there was no production.

If we take Britain as an example, the presence of a mobile, 'homeless' and 'ungrounded' population had been gathering in the towns and cities of England for hundreds of years before the onset of 'industrialisation'. The bulk of the London mob which hounded Parliament and King in the build-up to the Civil War were made up of just such folk - described at the time as the 'meaner' sort of people. 'Vagabonds who would sell their labour to any job going' by another source at the time. Industrialisation and 'capitalism' quite simply did not emerge together as one, unified force. Industrialisation was a by-product of capitalism's innate ability to maximise efficiency and incentivise re-investment in productive technologies and capabilities.

Mouldy-brown said:
Furthermore, there is no comparison possible between the period in which Marx exposed his ideas and the dynamics of current (Western) societies, which makes "class struggle" in this time and age all the more an upbeated artificial.

As dennisr has already (convincingly) pointed out, your specification of 'Western' societies is completely unfounded. The onset of capitalism has recreated the same conditions in all areas of the globe. There's not a single example of a country which has successfully industrialised without creating a modern proletariat and (indeed) a workers' movement (apart from possibly China). As was also pointed out, check the fucking news. Jeez.

Oldy-Braun said:
“Workers” must be able to parasite on the input of the investors to make a living while denying them a living of their own.

Eh? What a joke :rolleyes:...
 
i do not intend to - i will answer each of your points about what you consider wrong or illiogical etc etc with marxist analysis from the very beginning of your intervention on this thread.

mmm... To save you some more time: I never even remotely indicated there was something wrong with the analysis of Marx. I said it can't be transferred to the dynamics of the society you live in = the Western Capitalist Consumerist society of today. You are not a "worker" you are a consumer of goods and the moment you stop consuming them the Capitalist Consumerist economy implodes on its own inherent weakness.

salaam.
 
I think you need to read Capital Volume 3 and theories of surplus value on the 'commerial proletariat' i would have thought that the greatest living marxist would have done so already.

Hey man, it's a shame you've made youself look like more or an R-tard in incorrectly analysing 'Capital'. The commercial proletariat are still labour which is subcontracted to 'do a job'.

Infact I based the post you quoted on Marx' analysis of the Commercial prole.
 
Let's be clear here -you're basing your post that i quoted on you reading of Capital Volume 3 - is that right?

You do also realise that you've just cut the ground from under your own feet with 'The commercial proletariat are still labour which is subcontracted to 'do a job'? No, of course you don't.
 
No mention of the directly political point that

Of course, what this pure relations to MOP approach means is that m/c people like hooverbag with different class interest from the w/c get to pretend that they're w/c and then impose their own class intersts as those of the w/c - we've all seen where m/c leadership of the 'labour movement' has led us.

Of course not. Examining class interest is a bit too marxist for this marxist.
 
Do you understand what 'commercial proletariat' means?

Let's be clear here -you're basing your post that i quoted on your reading of Capital Volume 3 - is that right? And that by extension of the logic applied in Marxs argument there that this applies to all other non-directly surplus value producing workers? Then you've just fucked yourself and your definitions. And you genuinely don't know whay do you? Excellent.
 
Though I've shown repeatedly how the theory of surplus labour value doesn't apply to self-employed builders, R-tard.
 
Though I've shown repeatedly how the theory of surplus labour value doesn't apply to slef-employed builders, R-tard.

Marvelous -the concept which Marx argued is the key defining characteristic of capitalist society doesn't apply to a large segment of the workforce. Their inputs, rents etc are free from the rigours of market competition and the operation of the law of value. More of this please.
 
lol - R-tard hasn't read the thread. I thought it had, but evidently it fails to learn from the past mistakes of others.

For the record (and your own benefit) the term 'commercial proletariat' was used to resolve issues regarding surplus labour value - but not in the context R-tard thinks. It was used to breach the distinction between service and industrial sector workers, as many purists in the workers' movement considered all those workers not directly involved in the production of actual wealth (but rather simply sitting behind a counter or stacking shelves) not real workers. Marx showed (through this definition of the commercial prole) how surplus labour is still extracted from you, e'en if you work in a call centre :).

He didn't, however, randomly go on from this to claim that all those members of Guilded Trades somehow had surplus labour extracted off them, and that the evidence for this was that 'they were poor and worked hard'.
 
Das Uberdog

It is lucky for you that Chris Bambery doesn't read this forum. You would be thrown out of the party for your Menshevic tendencies.
 
lol - R-tard hasn't read the thread. I thought it had, but evidently it fails to learn from the past mistakes of others.
Like the bit where you argue that until the 1950s all women were wage and hiousewives labourers and women who were just housewives were in fact middle class? Bizzaro.
 
Das Uberdog

It is lucky for you that Chris Bambery doesn't read this forum. You would be thrown out of the party for your Menshevic tendencies.

I'm no Menshevik. Infact, I evidently understand more about my position as a Leninist-Trot than most of the R-tards round here. In particular, R-tard.
 
lol - R-tard hasn't read the thread. I thought it had, but evidently it fails to learn from the past mistakes of others.

For the record (and your own benefit) the term 'commercial proletariat' was used to resolve issues regarding surplus labour value - but not in the context R-tard thinks. It was used to breach the distinction between service and industrial sector workers, as many purists in the workers' movement considered all those workers not directly involved in the production of actual wealth (but rather simply sitting behind a counter or stacking shelves) not real workers. Marx showed (through this definition of the commercial prole) how surplus labour is still extracted from you, e'en if you work in a call centre :).

He didn't, however, randomly go on from this to claim that all those members of Guilded Trades somehow had surplus labour extracted off them, and that the evidence for this was that 'they were poor and worked hard'.

What on earth is this surplus labour value you keep mentioning - even your use of this mis-term shows you to be wrong.

Now think about how your above post can be applied in terms of sub-contracting and relations of MOP. Go on, you're going in the right direction. One more push. You'll be out of the 1930s beforwe too long.
 
Poor butchersapron - evidently so emotionally hamstrung over its inability to provide the world with any productive purpose, yet lacking the rational faculties necessary to just do the decent thing and top itself.
 
Ok Aldo, time to tear you apart:

Good luck.

There is no circular logic but in your approach.
Even in order to milk a cow
a) there is need for a cow = capital
b) there is need for land and water to feed the cow = capital
before you can look for
c) getting a bucket = investment in equipment
to
d) gather the milk = investment in labor producing output of capital and investment
to
e) sell the milk = return
to
f) calculate the net profit
to
g) buy a second cow, more land, more buckets pay for more milkers = re-investment of surplus capital...

For you the cow, the land, everything else falls from the sky at any given moment because you wish it to be there.
OK then. If that makes you happy.

You make a correct statement later on - wealth already exists. Well, it's almost right; potential wealth already exists in the resources which we have at our disposal. A field (already in existance) gives the potential for crops. Crude oil the potential for petrol. However, without investing human labour into these projects that wealth remains unrealised.

Correction: without the owner of the land investing in human labour he doesn't make any other profit from what the simple possession of the land produces. Wars were fought over possession of land and what it represents as wealth for the owner They still are.

Before capitalism these resources could be used as and when human beings could galvanise and organise themselves around a project enough to do it.

Correction: Since the formation of the first human societies, the possession of land was the aim of all efforts. Those who owned the land were in a position of power because in possessing the direct resources of wealth.

Money was invented to facilitate trade in the products of the land, which was and remains the solid base and source of all primary capital and the power connected to it.

So, you're right:- in a capitalist society capital investment needs to occur before wealth can be created. In a society where not all human resources are considered 'private property', and in which the fruits of the earth are owned in common, capital is not needed to make any 'transactions'. You can just get down to business and make that wealth, dawg. In reality, therefore, you are wrong (I added the first sentence for the flow ;)).

The failure of the communist's states should teach you something.

In what way do the owners of the means of production live anything other than a parasitic existence? They are uneccessary - the workers create the wealth, yet recieve marginal benefits from it. In order to employ workers, capitalist must pay them less than the capital value of the labour they give. This is a categorical example of exploitation.

You should (re)read my post(s) about that.
Basically you claim that capital and investment is not needed. Again, it springs up out of nowhere and keeps flowing out of nowhere. I thought food falling from the sky was something described in the Bible, but it looks as if it is an idea fostered by various people who probably never opened the Bible.
(Hint: I am Muslim. I do not belong to a "church" That is something exclusively Christian.)

Class is an artificial division. While you think you argue against this, you describe perfectly how artificial and artificially maintained it is.
Why would my circumstances of birth make me an other "class" than you or anyone else? Only because people like to make such division. You seem to like it even more than those you call "upper class".

You claim that people artificially define themselves according to their class - I'll remember that when I'm next standing in the cold outside the Ritz, looking in. Right before I get arrested for loitering.

Why do you want to book the Ritz? I'll invite you. You shall see that a room is a room and a bed is a bed and once you sleep you have no clue where - or who - you are.

What you're saying, though, is that the system doesn't exist - that next time you walk into a shop and there's a pot of caviar you can't afford to buy, you're mentally deluding yourself if you think you can't just pick it right up off the shelf and walk out the store. You're actually espousing anarchist sentiments. All Marx is saying is that though you may have the ability to take the caviar, the system forbades you the 'right' and labels your action 'theft' - and will use physical force to suppress you. That is the artificial reality created by society, not a Marxist analysis of it.

mmm... No. I say it should not exist and it only exists because it is created and sustained. Why is caviar expensive? (it is not in Iran where they throw it at your head) Because it is made so, which is reason why you want to have it: Because it is expensive. Trust me there is nothing tasty about the eggs of a fish (and in fact in Islamic dietary law it is traditionally considered haram. The Iranians in particular made quite an interesting turn to be able to declare it halal)
Nevertheless, you are not going to tell me that when you pay what is asked you are not able to buy caviar or book a hotel - the whole of it if you want - because you are so called "working class".

Wrong: 'industrialism' occurred because of the existance of a new class - the Proletariat.

Wrong. Although the proletariat existed thousands years ago, as such described in Roman sources (and earlier) Industrialism led to the flow of the landless to the city. Which is where the modern notion of "proletariat" stemms from. (You are a bit wrong about serfdom. They were not slaves, they did not "belong" the the landowner but they were bound to the land itself.)

your specificification of 'Western' societies is completely unfounded. The onset of capitalism has recreated the same conditions in all areas of the globe. There's not a single example of a country which has successfully industrialised without creating a modern proletariat and (indeed) a workers' movement (apart from possibly China). As was also pointed out, check the fucking news. Jeez.

The dynamics of societies like my own are totally different to what you have and know. The process of industrialization is not even remotely comparable either, nor is the diversity of directions in which such developments take place (or better said, are directed to take place) comparable to Western societies.
Read the book I recommend to get an idea.

salaam.
 
mmm... To save you some more time: I never even remotely indicated there was something wrong with the analysis of Marx. I said it can't be transferred to the dynamics of the society you live in = the Western Capitalist Consumerist society of today. You are not a "worker" you are a consumer of goods and the moment you stop consuming them the Capitalist Consumerist economy implodes on its own inherent weakness.

salaam.

yes that was taken as a given...
 
Aldo said:
There is no circular logic but in your approach.
Even in order to milk a cow
a) there is need for a cow...

Let me stop you there - if there is no cow, then you catch a cow. If you want oil, you extract and refine crude. Human beings started with nothing. They had to 'take' stuff. It wasn't 'naturally embued' to us. Labour comes before capital.

Correction: without the owner of the land investing in human labour he doesn't make any other profit from what the simple possession of the land produces. Wars were fought over possession of land and what it represents as wealth for the owner They still are.

But he restricts others from its wealth.

The failure of the communist's states should teach you something.

You should know that's a seperate argument.

Class is an artificial division. While you think you argue against this, you describe perfectly how artificial and artificially maintained it is.

I blatantly accepted that class was an artificial division! That doesn't mean its physical presence isn't manifested in a thousand different forms which can't help but alter the way we live our lives! It's artificial, and it exists. Let's get rid of it.

You shall see that a room is a room and a bed is a bed and once you sleep you have no clue where - or who - you are.

Ever slept on a bed of straw? Ever slept on a bed of straw in a room with no heating, in the middle of winter? Then had to get up and be expected to look and act sharp as anyone else at 5 o'clock in the morning? Is gruel as nourishing as soup? Is a coarse woollen blanket as comfortable as linen sheets?

Bollocks.

I say it should not exist and it only exists because it is created and sustained. Why is caviar expensive? (it is not in Iran where they throw it at your head) Because it is made so, which is reason why you want to have it: Because it is expensive. Trust me there is nothing tasty about the eggs of a fish (and in fact in Islamic dietary law it is traditionally considered haram. The Iranians in particular made quite an interesting turn to be able to declare it halal)
Nevertheless, you are not going to tell me that when you pay what is asked you are not able to buy caviar or book a hotel - the whole of it if you want - because you are so called "working class".

In talking about the respective price of caviar you've somewhat missed the point. Replace caviar with anything - even plain old bread for a starving beggar with no money. They have no right to it.

Although the proletariat existed thousands years ago, as such described in Roman sources (and earlier) Industrialism led to the flow of the landless to the city. Which is where the modern notion of "proletariat" stemms from.

Wrong - Rome was a slave-based society, not a proletarian based society. Basic forms of the proletariat have existed in cities since God knows when - the point is when they became a large enough proportion of the population to support a different system of working (mass working). Industrialisation cannot occur without the working class.

The dynamics of societies like my own are totally different to what you have and know. The process of industrialization is not even remotely comparable either, nor is the diversity of directions in which such developments take place (or better said, are directed to take place) comparable to Western societies.

Don't patronise me - and you're wrong, as dennisr's links clearly showed.
 
Let me stop you there - if there is no cow, then you catch a cow. If you want oil, you extract and refine crude. Human beings started with nothing. They had to 'take' stuff. It wasn't 'naturally embued' to us. Labour comes before capital.

You conveniently forget the crucial details:
The moment you catch a cow- and maybe she comes to you all by herself - you are the owner of capital others have not.
The moment you have an oil well - and most probably that was there before you came along - you own capital others have not.
You then are in possession of wealth. A capitalist. Richer than those you employ to milk your cow or to refine your oil.
I suppose you give them the cow and the oil well and quietly go away to starve?

Ever slept on a bed of straw? Ever slept on a bed of straw in a room with no heating, in the middle of winter?

In fact: Yes. It was even winter in a mountainous region. You wouldn't believe where I ended up when I was a teenager doing field research.

Then had to get up and be expected to look and act sharp as anyone else at 5 o'clock in the morning?

Yes, that too. Was inevitable to wake up even earlier.

Is gruel as nourishing as soup?

Don't know the first thing so I can't tell.

Is a coarse woollen blanket as comfortable as linen sheets?

The former is no doubt warmer than the latter.

Replace caviar with anything - even plain old bread for a starving beggar with no money. They have no right to it.

Yes they have as long as they are given permission to ask for it. Is begging prohibited where you live?

Wrong - Rome was a slave-based society, not a proletarian based society

No. Although slavery always existed the influx of war prisoners and the scale on which they were employed as labour force at large estates was a later development due to the wars of conquest and the political developments in the later Republican years. According Roman Law slaves were family members with the same statute as women and children. In many cases and especially in Rome itself the poor plebeian had less than a slave in a middle class household.

Don't patronise me - and you're wrong, as dennisr's links clearly showed.

:) You have absolutely no clue about the MENA region and your tone and persistence in thinking you have shows that the more.
Read the book.

salaam.
 
Aldo-Brian said:
The moment you catch a cow- and maybe she comes to you all by herself - you are the owner of capital others have not.

Only if you choose to restrict access to it from other people. What right do you have? Who was the first person to come up with the idea that something belonged to 'them' and not everyone in common? Property is a falsehood - a real artificial creation.

Your following comments are completely removed from dealing with the actual questions at hand. For your information, gruel is not as nourishing as soup. If gruel is all you can afford to buy, then you will probably die of malnutrition.

In London begging is banned, as far as I know. The police can move you on for begging under the Public Order Act and other such laws, too. Regardless - if you have no money, in many areas of the world it is quite easy to go hungry, and indeed, to starve to death.

No. Although slavery always existed the influx of war prisoners and the scale on which they were employed as labour force at large estates was a later development due to the wars of conquest and the political developments in the later Republican years.

Not that this can be considered a response in any way, shape or form - but I'd like to point out that your distinction of 'proletariat' (which categorically did not come into existence until the dawn of capitalism) has already been dealt with numerous times.

You have absolutely no clue about the MENA region and your tone and persistence in thinking you have shows that the more.
Read the book

You evidently have no idea what I know about the Middle-East and North Africa, how fucking dare you patronise me like that - in particular when you're showing such a general lack of worldly knowledge yourself.
 
Only if you choose to restrict access to it from other people. What right do you have?

It has less to do with right as with the simple fact of coincidence of being first. If I milk a cow, you can't milk it at the same time.

Who was the first person to come up with the idea that something belonged to 'them' and not everyone in common? Property is a falsehood - a real artificial creation.

It isn't only a matter that plays a role in human interaction. If a lion catches a prey, an other lion can't catch it. The first defends his catch against any other in order to survive. It is simply basic instinct that drives people similarly to catch and keep and to gather more and once they have more, greed comes into play. It is as such not even artificial, just a consequence of human nature.

In London begging is banned, as far as I know. The police can move you on for begging under the Public Order Act and other such laws, too.

If true, I don't know why the UK is considered democratic, let alone upholding the basic principles of human rights.

Regardless - if you have no money, in many areas of the world it is quite easy to go hungry, and indeed, to starve to death.

Yes, but you pass the core of my argument: Western societies do not starve their population to death. Maybe accidentally such a drama could happen, if someone doesn't find their way to charity or other - most of the time governmental - organizations. Therefore to argue as if you are in such a dire position that such degree of deprivation and poverty is imminent, just because you consider yourself "working class", is beyond ridiculous.

No matter how you want to name it, the masses deprived from any possession but their own body existed since as long as recorded human history. No matter if you hold on to the - re-invented - description "proletariat" or not. To suggest otherwise betrays a lack of fundamental insight in human hsitory and the development of societies.

You evidently have no idea what I know about the Middle-East and North Africa, how fucking dare you patronise me like that - in particular when you're showing such a general lack of worldly knowledge yourself.

Of course. I was only born there and I live there and in addition I traveled extensively up and down the region (and not only in the context of field research.) How on earth would I detect someone's lacking of knowledge and ion fact even huge gaps within that lacking thereof.
Seems quite impossible.

salaam.
 
You accept on the one hand that human beings are restricted access to the abundance of human wealth, and that this restriction is (in effect) passed down through families.

On the other, you completely baselessly claim that class does not exist.

Words are just tools which are often inaccurate ways for us to comment upon certain phenomena - 'class' is a word used to describe such a distinction as you have readily accepted exists. The point doesn't have to be that working class people can starve to death - all it needs to be is that they are denied access to human resources which (on a basic human 'classless' level) they have as much 'right' to (whatever that means) as anyone else. Then, class exists.

So, class exists. kthx.

D-Dawg

PS - 'AI LIV HERE AI NO MOR THAN U!!' has always been, and always will be, a pretty lame-arse excuse for a rebuttal.
 
Something I've been pondering on lately and was wondering what other people thought. I mean is a plumber who owns a house and has sent both his kids through uni working class?
Are his kids who having qualified work as an accountant and a shop manager and earn a fair bit less than him middle class or working class?

It's something that baffles me, can anyone help me with this question please?
if you want to describe the world there are a plethora descriptions of the class system which SEEM to paint a vivid picture, but if you want to understand the DYNAMIC of class society, why society's rise and fall, the Marxist class analysis is the est abstract tool.
 
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