Urban75 Home About Offline BrixtonBuzz Contact

The Virgin Mary

He’s either God or he’s a bad man..
I love it , simple and true
I think everyone should ask that to themselves and like Bishop Bob said make your decision .
 
This is old, but on point



...convinced that Jesus had the healthiest mind, but also attracted by his glorious character.
It's more likely that he was mad, misunderstood, misrepresented or bad than that he was the incarnation of the fundamental principle of all creation, a fully human being that is also an omnipotent timeless deity, two separate natures in one person, who sentences himself to a painful death to redeem a punishment that he himself ordered.
 
I doubt very much that Jesus would recognise the teachings of his immediate followers after his death, nevermind Paul or the Gospel writers nevermind the proto orthodox nevermind the modern Catholic Church.

He was probably an apocalyptic Jewish rabbi who thought the end was near. And if he thought that he was wrong because it wasn't.
 
I doubt very much that Jesus would recognise the teachings of his immediate followers after his death, nevermind Paul or the Gospel writers nevermind the proto orthodox nevermind the modern Catholic Church.

He was probably an apocalyptic Jewish rabbi who thought the end was near. And if he thought that he was wrong because it wasn't.
Yes, he said that the end would be coming within the lifetime of his disciples.
Just one of his mistakes.
 
Could he have been a charismatic bullshitter with complicated motives, some of them righteous and some self-serving?
You know, a human being?
 
There's really no way of knowing what the historical Jesus believed.

Going by the evidence -- which is dubious enough -- it seems likely that there was someone charismatic whose take on Jewish law was more liberal than that prevailing in his time. And he was punished for this.

Whether anything he's supposed to have said or done actually took place is as likely as any rumour.
 
There's really no way of knowing what the historical Jesus believed.

Going by the evidence -- which is dubious enough -- it seems likely that there was someone charismatic whose take on Jewish law was more liberal than that prevailing in his time. And he was punished for this.

Whether anything he's supposed to have said or done actually took place is as likely as any rumour.
Well, he definitely started Christmas ;)
 
Just reads like a blog post. No offence but if you are going to keep bumping the thread maybe put a bit on the table.
 
If you look at the actual icon and its well documented history it'd be hard to deny that there is strong evidence that the icon was actually created by Luke...
You don't appear to understand what 'well-documented' means. That article doesn't even pretend to cite any evidence. It's written for gullible mugs like you.
 
Do you think that the "Old" Testament is the word of God?
The Old Testament is an indispensable part of Sacred Scripture. Its books are divinely inspired and retain a permanent value, for the Old Covenant has never been revoked.
 
The Old Testament is an indispensable part of Sacred Scripture. Its books are divinely inspired and retain a permanent value, for the Old Covenant has never been revoked.
So, you don't think that the texts have been edited later on?
 
I don't know. Do you?

1 Chronicles 1:43 (King James Version)

“Now these are the kings that reigned in the land of Edom before any king reigned over the children of Israel”.
This is clearly written after there were kings of the children of Israel.

Moses lived, it is claimed, before kings ruled the children of Israel. How, then, can it be explained that the same words appear in Genesis, which, it is claimed, was written by Moses?

“And these are the kings that reigned in the land of Edom, before there reigned any king over the children of Israel.”
Genesis 36: 31
(King James Version)

How did Moses know that there would be kings? Why are these words repeated?​

 

1 Chronicles 1:43 (King James Version)

“Now these are the kings that reigned in the land of Edom before any king reigned over the children of Israel”.
This is clearly written after there were kings of the children of Israel.

Moses lived, it is claimed, before kings ruled the children of Israel. How, then, can it be explained that the same words appear in Genesis, which, it is claimed, was written by Moses?

“And these are the kings that reigned in the land of Edom, before there reigned any king over the children of Israel.”
Genesis 36: 31
(King James Version)

How did Moses know that there would be kings? Why are these words repeated?​

Good catch. This question taps into biblical interpretation and tradition. Many scholars believe that Moses didn't necessarily write every word of the Pentateuch (the first five books of the Old Testament) himself, but that these texts might have been compiled and edited by later scribes. This would explain how passages anticipating future events, like the reign of kings in Israel, appear in texts traditionally attributed to him. It suggests that these references were added later to reflect historical contexts.
Different traditions within Judaism and Christianity have varied views on the authorship and composition of biblical texts. I think your observations are valid. I don't have an answer. What is the conclusion you are making? What's your take on this?
 
Back
Top Bottom