winjer
holocene death beat
If picketing was not entirely lawful in itself, why were specific laws enacted to criminalize it?Please explain how allowing one group of people to enforce their views on another group by threats and / or force whilst not allowing that other group to simply go about their (entirely lawful) business would be "impartial". It would, I suggest, be entirely partial - it would intervene to enforce the views of the "workers" / strikers.