In the West it has ceased to be the primary generator of capital, has it not?
Not really, the west still consumes and imports huge amounts of industrially manufactured commodities, which underpins capitalism generally. This service sector, post-industrial economy we have in the UK is a niche within a globalised economy, only possible because "western" capital can use China as an export platform and then sell those commodities nack to the British/western markets that otherwise would be manufactured domestically. In the West or Britain, perhaps other sectors of the economy "generate more capital", the City probably does outweigh industry in GDP, but that industrial capacity in China does generate a huge amount of capital for what are nominally "western" multi-national enterprises, even though they aren't geographically in the West. It's not a "post-industrial" society because it's dependent upon an industrial base elsewhere in the world, and it's incredibly eurocentric to just pretend it doesn't exist and we've got beyond industrial capitalism because of de-industrialisation in parts of your own back yard. Even the likes of Daniel Bell didn't try making this argument you're making.
We haven't gone beyond industrial wage-slavery, we've just outsourced production to another part of the world, and heavily automated the bits of the industrial manufacturing economy that remain. Productivity for example in Germany, industrially, has gone up steadily all throughout the 80's and 90's, so the de-industrialisation arguments there focus not on the ability of German industry to make money, but the fact they've managed to increase productivity whilst steadily reducing the numbers of workers required to achieve it. Furthermore, big "German" companies use a supply chain that relies on outsourcing to parts of the third world, to take advantage of cheap labour, which again generates capital for the "West" although wage-slavery and the surplus value and all that horrible stuff takes place out of sight, out of mind, in the global south.
This means that the way in which "de-indutrialisation" is spoken of in that particular chunk of the 1st world refers to the proportion of people employed in industrial manufacturing jobs, and the growth of service sector as a proportion of the workforce, rather than the decline of overall industrial production. It's different in Britain, because we don't retain a large industrial manufacturing capacity like the Germans (although the end of british industry is often routinely overstated in arguments -we still manufacture a lot here on the sly) and the state decided in the 80's to replace that with a massive financial sector called the City of London and a low-productivity, low-wage, tertiary economy attached to it.
Give us a break Delbert. You've had your fun, now please to go away Sir.
I'll let you know when i've finsihed having my fun. I'm snowed in so I'm going nowhere today