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I'm surprised there's no thread on this. The whole world is watching this currently go through out courts system.
Seems to me to be very worrying.
1) If taking part in risky behaviour during pregnancy could lead to prosecution, where would you draw the line. Blue cheese? Prawn linguine? A jog around the park?
2) Presumably any woman that's going to take her child to full term wants that child to be healthy, and this is an issue of addiction and lack of support. We already know that the prospect of being prosecuted does nothing for those who are addicted.
What do you think the chances are of the courts finding in favour of the plaintiff? Do you think this is going to lead to criminalisation of some pregnant women?
http://www.telegraph.co.uk/health/h...ce-legal-proceedings-following-test-case.html
Mothers who drink during pregnancy could face legal proceedings following a test case which will decide whether a child born with foetal alcohol syndrome can be awarded compensation.
On Wednesday a council in the North West of England will argue at London's Court of Appeal that a child born with serious health defects as a result of her mother’s drinking habits should be considered a victim of crime.
If successful, it could pave the way for drinking during pregnancy becoming a criminal offence."
Seems to me to be very worrying.
1) If taking part in risky behaviour during pregnancy could lead to prosecution, where would you draw the line. Blue cheese? Prawn linguine? A jog around the park?
2) Presumably any woman that's going to take her child to full term wants that child to be healthy, and this is an issue of addiction and lack of support. We already know that the prospect of being prosecuted does nothing for those who are addicted.
The child, who cannot be named, was diagnosed with foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) at birth, a condition which can cause which facial deformities, problems with physical and emotional development, and poor memory or a short attention span.
In 2011, a hearing ruled that the mother's drinking was "directly attributable to a crime of violence" and so the child was eligible for a payout.
In the case of the six-year-old, the mother is said to have "consumed grossly excessive quantities of alcohol" and had been "using drugs".
What do you think the chances are of the courts finding in favour of the plaintiff? Do you think this is going to lead to criminalisation of some pregnant women?
http://www.telegraph.co.uk/health/h...ce-legal-proceedings-following-test-case.html
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