This is one of the things that’s confused me, and tbf I haven’t been following it too closely. But I thought it was because she had said “me too” applied to her, without naming him. Me too started as acknowledging sexual assault, coercion and intimidation but I have no issue with it also encompassing DV. But DV isn’t just “beating people up”, there’s a whole host of abuse that happens without leaving a physical mark. So I’ve got a bit confused at how the he’s allegedly innocent of it all because it couldn’t be proved he physically beat her, but there’s recorded evidence of intimidation