I thoroughly disagree, to once again say the very least. with
free spirit generally on this thread, but especially
with his post on page 19 in reply to mine. But it's too late
to respond to that properly right now.
Suffice to say for now that my response to his position is not based on morality. Will get back to this some other time.
I'll try one last time to explain my problem with this situation.
1 - We have case law that says clearly that drunken sex is ok, drunken consent is still consent.
2 - If someone was too drunk to actually give their consent, and they were obviously too drunk to give their consent then that would have been rape. Previously this meant that they hadn't actually consented as they were too drunk to speak or work out what was going on or similar.
3 - We now have a case where this has been extended to mean that drunken consent (or alleged drunken consent) is nullified if the person who allegedly gave that consent was in alcoholic blackout at the time and can't remember anything at all about what happened when they wake up the next morning.
The inference of this being that she must have been, and must have appeared to have been too drunk to give her consent at that time if she can't remember it.
Why this is a problem
The problem with this being that it can be nie on impossible to tell the difference between someone who is merely drunk, and someone who is in alcoholic blackout and won't remember a thing about what's happened in the morning.
The person who is in alcoholic blackout can appear to all intents and purposes just as lucid as the person who is merely drunk*, they may well be able to hold deep and meaningful conversations, walk, dance etc they're just incapable of actually laying down new memories of what is going on while they are in that state.
So the dividing line between point 1 and point 3 is one that can be pretty much impossible for someone to determine at the time, unless they specifically do something to test out the persons short term memory or similar, meaning a person could legitimately think they were just in a drunken consent situation, whereas actually, unbeknown to them, the other person was actually at point 3 and was incapable of remembering what had happened and could therefore be deemed to have been too drunk to legitimately consent, and therefore to have been raped.
So her story stacks up, the footballers story potentially stacks up as well, and the 2 aren't contradictory. The prosecutions version of events really doesn't, and seems to be based on a misunderstanding of the nature of alcoholic blackouts, as the prosection should have needed to prove that the guy must have known at the time that she was incapacitated through alcohol in order for this to stick.
* this is particularly the case if the drinks involved contained a lot of caffeine, sugar etc such as vodka red bull, or vodka and cokes, as the caffeine and sugar ensures the person seems wide awake and lively, while the alcohol prevents the memory formation from happening. Same with coke, speed etc. Alcoholic blackout is usually brought on by a rapid rise in the blood alcohol levels in a short space of time, so several spirits in quick succession as was the case here, it's entirely different to the situation when getting gradually drunk over a few pints, just in case anyone wasn't aware of the difference.
That's me done with this for a while at least, as A I appear to be going round in circles with this, and B I'm off to Spain for a few days, and am fucked if I'm going to waste my time over there arguing the toss about this on Urban.