Artaxerxes
Look out, he's got a gnu!
Which riots were connected to brogdale assertion of 1968 being the year capital took its neo liberal turn?
You’d have to ask them
Which riots were connected to brogdale assertion of 1968 being the year capital took its neo liberal turn?
Which blocks of capital in 1968 are you referring to ?Whenever I see the 1973 OPEC Oil crisis exogenous shock cited as the root of/orgins of the present shit-show, I'm always tempted to say go back further, or at least 5 years before to the events of '68 when, IMHO, capital decided to walk away from the "post-war social contract" or whatever we might call the compromises that capital made in the period when they feared really existing system competition. I think that was the point that increasingly globalised, incipiently financialised corporations realised that whatever they gave to labour it would never be enough and they took the neoliberal turn.
Not sure I understand the question, tbh.Which blocks of capital in 1968 are you referring to ?
Yep, that was when government determined interest rates and tried to juggle a load of macro-economic/political goals simultaneously, not just the 2% inflation target. For a while in the 70's some inflation was not unhelpful as a way for governments to use the 'money illusion' to attempt to persuade workers that nominal wage increases somehow compensated for the beginnings of real-terms falling pay.Lets not forget the Barber boom of 72-74
The early years of the 1970s were a period of rapid economic growth.
- The Bank of England deregulated the mortgage market - meaning High Street Banks could now lend mortgages (not just local building societies). This helped fuel a rise in house prices and consumer wealth.
- Barber Boom of 1972. In the 1972 budget, the chancellor Anthony Barber made a dash for growth - with large tax cuts against a backdrop of high economic growth.
- Growth of Credit. It was in the 1970s, we saw the first mass use of credit cards (Access). This helped create a consumer bubble.
By 1973, inflation in the UK was accelerating to over 20%. This was due to:
- Rising wages, partly due to strength of unions.
- The inflationary budget of 1972.
- Growth in credit and consumer spending.
- Oil price shock of 1973, leading to 70% increase in oil prices.
The Economy of the 1970s
See previous decade - 1960s . The 1970s was not just an era of dayglow trousers, lava lamps and the emergence of punk rock. It was a traum...econ.economicshelp.org
I wonder how much was due to rising wages, but I think it was the start of the boom/bust cycle we'd not seen since before WWII.
That's quite a reductive take, but my understanding of the 'events' is that it was the combined action of student middle-classes and organised labour that really freaked De Gaulle into calling it a communist insurrection. That, and other destabilising social/socio-economic movements certainly seem to correlate with the rapidly globalising/financialising corporations taking flight from the previous 'social contract' of the post war years and marks the point where productivity and wages started to de-couple.And this was the beginning of the end for the working class?
And what sort of fuckwit would try that again but on a bigger scale? AhYep, that was when government determined interest rates and tried to juggle a load of macro-economic/political goals simultaneously, not just the 2% inflation target. For a while in the 70's some inflation was not unhelpful as a way for governments to use the 'money illusion' to attempt to persuade workers that nominal wage increases somehow compensated for the beginnings of real-terms falling pay.
The next bit's quite entertaining:The parallels between last Friday’s audacious mini-budget, with its extensive tax cuts and its focus on boosting investment and growth, and Anthony Barber’s ill-fated ‘dash for growth’ budget in 1972 have been noted in several quarters. Paul Johnson of the Institute for Fiscal Studies, for instance, described Kwasi Kwarteng’s budget as, ‘the biggest tax-cutting event since 1972’, before noting gloomily that Barber’s budget is generally seen as ending in disaster.[1] And William Keegan, writing in the Observer, recalled Barber’s declared objective ‘To achieve a rate of growth twice as fast as in the past decade’.[2] The following months, both articles point out, would demonstrate the folly of seeking an accelerated rate of growth at a time of serious inflationary pressures.
What has not been noted, however, is the strange symmetry in the way that both Barber’s budget and Kwarteng’s mini-budget were linked to the European policies of the Edward Heath and Liz Truss governments. One of the key rationales behind Barber’s budgetary radicalism, most historians agree, was to ready the United Kingdom’s economy to exploit to the full the economic opportunities opened up by the flagship policy of the Heath government, namely entry into the European Economic Community. ...
There is hence more than a hint of irony in the way in which a remarkably similar attempt to accelerate the growth rate of the UK economy through fiscal means is now being made by a government of staunch Brexit supporters intent on demonstrating the economic opportunities supposedly opened up by Britain’s departure from the European Union. As Robert Shrimsley wrote in the Financial Times almost as soon as Kwarteng had finished outlining his plans, ‘Finally, the Brexit that economic liberals wanted. While most supporters of leaving the EU were motivated by issues of sovereignty and immigration, a cadre of free-market Tories saw it as the gateway to the fabled Singapore-on-Thames. A lean, deregulated, low-tax state was the only logical economic strategy for a nation putting up barriers with its largest trading market. We are about to see how far down that river this vision takes us.’[5]
Well you have now made reference to France and also described 'other destabilising social/socio-economic movements certainly seem to correlate with the rapidly globalising/financialising corporations taking flight from the previous 'social contract' of the post war years '.Not sure I understand the question, tbh.
Lot's of questions today The39thStepWell you have now made reference to France and also described 'other destabilising social/socio-economic movements certainly seem to correlate with the rapidly globalising/financialising corporations taking flight from the previous 'social contract' of the post war years '.
I am wondering where else this taking flight by capital took place ie which countries in 1968
Yep, that expresses what I was getting at, but just a bit more clearly.I think brogdale that you can definitely trace a shift in attitude among the ruling class back to 1968, but the forces of the working class were too powerful to be taken on and defeated in open class conflict at that time -- there needed to be another decade of "softening up" organized labor before Thatcher was able to take on and defeat the unions, but even then it was a close-run thing. The 1973 oil shocks provided the external input that allowed the Western ruling class to go on the front foot and begin hacking away at the welfare state and so on, but I'm not sure it's accurate to say this process began in earnest in 1968, at least not in the UK.
I always think that asking questions is often a sign of interest in the subject matter.Lot's of questions today The39thStep
I'm not sure I've been saying that capital's neoliberal turn occurred necessarily in 1968, but rather that the accelerated traction and implementation of ideas, (ideology?), and processes that have come to be known as neoliberalism, can perhaps better be traced to that year, rather than, say 1973, which is more widely known as a year of economic upheaval for the UK economy and other developed economies.
I sense that maybe you're not totally convinced by what i've been posting in here? If that's the case, I'm all ears.
the accelerated traction and implementation of ideas, (ideology?), and processes that have come to be known as neoliberalism, can perhaps better be traced to that year, rather than, say 1973,
Great to hear you think we're all in agreement of sorts! That must something of a first for this thread?I always think that asking questions is often a sign of interest in the subject matter.
I agree more with@Flavour here at the moment, and as you have now said that you agree with him I suppose we are all in agreement of sorts. Taking the very valid point that Flavour makes about the strength of the working class in , and the example you gave of France , we find ourselves in a somewhat contradictory position of the working class revolt there winning a 10% pay increase, several reforms and the statutory recognition of trade unions in all workplaces yet at the same time Post 1968 wage inequality decreased in France.
If we take Italy for example one year after 1968 then we find the working class achieving a 40 hour week and large wage increases and a period where the distribution of wealth to the working class increased. In the UK from 1970 despite the implementation of the Tories Industrial Relations Act ( modelled on some American legislation) we have a period in which wage increases dominate until the end of that decade. So I need some convincing that in 1968 or indeed 1969 or 1970 that we see the accelerated traction and implementation of neo liberalism to any real extent or influence.
I think there were signs of crisis, first in American capital, despite its adventures in Brazil and the Dominican Republic , with its GNP and rate of profit declining in the late 1960s but ironically some of that was to do with the competition from European and Japanese capital.
The second area where I have doubt is this notion of a retreat by capital from some sort of post war social contract . Firstly it's the idea of a post war consensus is greatly disputed in even in UK labour history. Secondly, even though you gave France as an example, I don't see any evidence or even a debate that there was a post-war social contract in France. Where else might this term have been applicable in Europe? Three countries Spain, Portugal and Greece had dictatorships. It certainly didn't exist in the States never mind the other continents or the East European bloc.
Can you expand on that? TaFirstly it's the idea of a post war consensus is greatly disputed in even in UK labour history.
No not really my field as such but feel as though I have an understanding of events of yhat period. I thought your contribution was useful and engaging however I do think that is always important to look at the agency of the organised working class as well as capital.Great to hear you think we're all in agreement of sorts! That must something of a first for this thread?
tbh, this whole topic area sounds like one in which you've done quite a bit of reading around. I'm not really sure that I'll be able to add anything much to what you already know. This your field, is it?
Will do tomorrow.Can you expand on that? Ta
Glad to hear you thought my contributions were useful. I suppose I'm coming at this from an economics perspective and am interested about what your saying about the economic history of France, Italy and the UK in the 1970s. My take is that for many developed countries the period of early to mid 1970s marked some sort of inflection point beyond which its possible to discern trends of falling factor rewards to labour as neoliberal capital broke from the 'social contract' and ensured that increasing shares of the pie went to profit, interest and rent.No not really my field as such but feel as though I have an understanding of events of yhat period. I thought your contribution was useful and engaging however I do think that is always important to look at the agency of the organised working class as well as capital.
Glad to hear you thought my contributions were useful. I suppose I'm coming at this from an economics perspective and am interested about what your saying about the economic history of France, Italy and the UK in the 1970s. My take is that for many developed countries the period of early to mid 1970s marked some sort of inflection point beyond which its possible to discern trends of falling factor rewards to labour as neoliberal capital broke from the 'social contract' and ensured that increasing shares of the pie went to profit, interest and rent.
i agree that the agency of the, then still, organised working class ensured some degree of lag beyond 1968, but the period of fruition from neoliberal turn to actual changes in proportion of factor rewards is pretty swift. The FT graph below is a useful indicator of that inflection point in trend across a number of European economies with 1973/4 being a common point. I would argue that changes effected in that year would suggest policy ideas formulated at an earlier point.
View attachment 373350
Can you expand on that? Ta
I think in some respects you're right to question the periodisation wrt the UK. if you look at the share of the factor rewards pie going to labour in the UK (% of GDP to wages) the inflection point is earlier, as you suggest:There are 3 contingencies that I’d draw attention to:
1. On the right of British politics there was never a genuine buy in to the ideation of consensus, instead there was an accommodation with it for political expediency reasons. The intellectual roots of Tory monetarism didn’t emerge in 1968 or the 1979 but in the 1950’s: directly in response to the threat posed by the organised working class.
2. The tripartite system essentially incorporated the tops of the trade unions into the managerial state. Whilst this produced significant gains (which the left often overlooks) it also produced tensions.
The rise and growth of the shop stewards movement of the 1960’s was a response from rank and file trade unionists to the top down approach that removed their agency at a local level and which cut them out of the bargaining process. In addition, the trade union bureaucracy was required to hold back and push back against pay and other demands from the shopfloor when it came into conflict with with the agreements struck with government and employers. This led to inevitable tensions and fissures and the inevitable ruck that was ‘in place of strife’ and Donovan.
3. The periodisation on this thread is all over the shop. British capital moved against Wilson in 1964, Benn and the others on the left were warning of a number of developments - that led to the production of the alternative economic strategy - in 1966 the point at which inequality levels reached a low point and British economic growth its highest - that demonstrated British capital’s intentions: to offshore, to move money out of the UK, to agglomerate, to flood imports in: in short to actively undermine key principles of the national economy.
The shrug of the shoulders from the labour right indicated its own lack of genuine commitment to ‘the consensus’. The decision to pursue membership of the EU - opposed by the entire labour movement bar it’s right wing - was (rightly) seen by Benn and others as preparing the ground to accommodate the demands of capital.
ETA: as steps has said this is a particular experience in Britain. Basque steelworkers - living under Franco where their culture and unions were suppressed - wouldn’t recognise the term ‘post-war consensus’.
Glad to hear you thought my contributions were useful. I suppose I'm coming at this from an economics perspective and am interested about what your saying about the economic history of France, Italy and the UK in the 1970s. My take is that for many developed countries the period of early to mid 1970s marked some sort of inflection point beyond which its possible to discern trends of falling factor rewards to labour as neoliberal capital broke from the 'social contract' and ensured that increasing shares of the pie went to profit, interest and rent.
i agree that the agency of the, then still, organised working class ensured some degree of lag beyond 1968, but the period of fruition from neoliberal turn to actual changes in proportion of factor rewards is pretty swift. The FT graph below is a useful indicator of that inflection point in trend across a number of European economies with 1973/4 being a common point. I would argue that changes effected in that year would suggest policy ideas formulated at an earlier point.
View attachment 373350
Quick answer, as it’s late; fear.Just a quick question as it's late.
You are comparing the impact of what you describe as neo liberal capital /the neo-liberal turn with what you describe as some form of 'social contract' capital whose distinguishing feature was a reduced share of the pie going to profit, interest and rent? The origins of this social contract capital are?
No such thing as too late in politicsTo protect any sort of meaningful national economy through the 2nd half of the 20th century (and refuse to let imports replace manufacturing etc) would have required a completely different kind of approach wouldnt it, that would have been the time to attempt a retreat from globalisation, 2016 a bit late.
Can you expand on that? Ta
Banking is the main export these days, but who is wanting that?It’s going to get interesting as the wage gap between China and places like the uk keeps shrinking, they & India are going to see wages rise higher than inflation this year I read somewhere and we just don’t make stuff anymore.
To protect any sort of meaningful national economy through the 2nd half of the 20th century (and refuse to let imports replace manufacturing etc) would have required a completely different kind of approach wouldnt it, that would have been the time to attempt a retreat from globalisation, 2016 a bit late.