Just want to say the only bit that confuses me in all this is the question of whether drunken consent is consent, or not. It seems like the case law on this is far from clearcut.
Eg. "In
R v Bree [2007] EWCA 256, the Court of Appeal explored the issue of capacity and consent, stating that, if, through drink, or for any other reason, a complainant had temporarily lost her capacity to choose whether to have sexual intercourse, she was not consenting, and subject to the defendant's state of mind, if intercourse took place, that would be rape. However, where a complainant had consumed substantial quantities of alcohol, but nevertheless remained capable of choosing whether to have intercourse, and agreed to do so, that would not be rape. ."
That's just not completely plain black and white, is it? The case was not about someone who'd passed out it was about whether or not her choices at the time should be deemed invalid due to intoxication rendering her incapable of a fully informed and considered rational decision.
The question being basically do intoxicated people have the capacity to consent.
Here's someone's attempt to have a serious look at the question. He concludes that no, drunken factual consent should not be the same thing as legal consent but acknowledges that its a complex question not a plain and simple thing.
He says "I am not a keen supporter of paternalism and am very wary of state intervention in order to protect people against their will, especially in areas of sexual choices which are so important to a person’s wellbeing. Nevertheless, I think the argument advanced in the name of (positive) sexual autonomy should be rejected.."
http://www.trinitinture.com/documents/wallerstein.pdf