BigTom
Well-Known Member
But this is the predominant view, for the past few years we've had more and more of it, spearheaded by the whole campus rape thing led by US universities, the phone apps designed to ensure that nobody takes you to court the morning after etc.
I've had a proper almost shouty argument about this recently with my very feminist sort of boyfriend, because I really don't get it: The idea that if say two equally drunk people have sex the woman is basically a victim and the man a criminal. But I can't comment on the case this thread is about because I know nothing about what actually happened.
The law does not state this, and the Ched Evans case shows that it is not applied in that way. I can't remember the name of the other guy* who was acquitted but his acquittal shows that what you've said here is totally false, and would not happen in any case (not just this one, any case, the law is not framed as you are suggesting, not at all). There are two conditions that must be met: 1) the raped person must have been too drunk to be able to give consent. 2) It must be reasonable to believe that the accused would know that the raped person was not in a condition to give consent.
Two equally drunk people, neither will be considered to be in a state to know the other was not in a state to be able to give consent.
*e2a: Clayton McDonald, Belboid thinking the same as me but with a better memory