Athos
Well-Known Member
... and potentially perpetuated a miscarriage of justice!
There is no strawman.
The second jury unanimously returned a different verdict to the first. Why, we don't know. It's possible that they thought the new evidence compelling, but also that they took the prosecutions advice, treated it as tainted, and acquitted on something else; like the lack of evidence of rape.
In that case the first conviction was unsound. That isn't altered by the way the second trial came about.
That position is based on wild (and highly unlikely) speculation about what went on in the jury room (that the content of the new evidence had no impact), and fails to address the substantive arguments about the process which allowed a retrial.
That you are so keen to reach for that interpretation must go to your motivation.
And here we are again. Let's not keep going round and round