Johnny Cannuck2: I e-mailed my last year's lectrurer on scientific realism, and here is his reply. He argues that laws can operate even though they do not exist, it really doesn't seem to add up to me (but I'm sure he won't mind me doing so
)
Often those who say that laws are created rather than discovered would
be described as being anti-realist about laws. One might think that they
were saying that what we call laws are our projections onto the world
rather than being features of how the world is independent of ourselves.
On the other hand you might say that if to be a law is just to be...
(fill in the blank, e.g. a Humean regularity that we pick out for
special treatment) and that condition is satisfied, then one could say:
yes, laws are real, even if they are in some sense our projection.
Do laws predate their theorisation? Well law _statements_ certainly
don't, but what we are interested in are the laws themselves. Apples
fall because of the law of gravity. Apples were falling (I imagine) long
before anyone was around to notice it, comment on it and recognise a law
at work. Suppose one adopted the Humean line and said laws were nothing
but regularities that we pick out as particularly interesting,
significant or robust. In a sense we would be creating the law in
picking out the significant regularity and this will happen at some
particular time. But even if we don't latch onto the regularity and
decide it is a law until time t, the regularity will include all
fallings of apples (etc.) that have gone on in the past before time t.
So the law was (in a sense) created at time t, but it was operative
before time t.
> If I were to contend that laws (whatever this relation is) are real,
would
> this
> amount to saying that laws do exist just because we create them - do
they
> predate their theorization?
>
> Is it a law that causes an apple to fall to the ground if dropped?
Maybe you are right, but, I can contribute to your interesting discussions