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the neoliberal vision of the future

This is simply not true. Laissez-faire is the direct cause of eliminating poverty in the world.



One minute you say that laissez-faire is the direct cause of eliminating poverty, and the next you're trying to say it doesn't exist and that governments which have embraced neo-liberalism are really welfare state socialists. You're all over the place, matie.

You are actually correct to say that laissez-faire doesn't really exist. Capitalism relies entirely on the exercise of all kinds of state power to back it up and to rescue it when its built-in flaws come to the surface. If it hadn't been bailed out to the tune of trillions only recently, it would have collapsed again (cue more cultish Mickey Mouse theory to 'prove' that the collapse of 2008 had nothing to do with capitalism and that the finance industry is really socialist.)
 
So you're backing off from using Chile as an example then?

No, absolutely not. If you look at e.g. the kind of hyperinflation Allende caused (printing money as crazy) and the gross violations he did my nationalizing an enormous amount of private business. These actions alone brought Chile to the brink of civil war, and ultimately led to the kind of military intervention that Pinochet orchestrated. Allende was a criminal and it is no wander that a lot of people were pissed off when he stole their property. You can say that it was the economic warfare against Chile that caused the problems, but thats really a little bit like saying that it is the rape victim's fault that she reacts the way she does to a rape. What Allende did was to rape the country, and large parts of the people reacted to this rape with outrage and preparing for civil war. The United States reacted by coming to the aid of the rape victim by boicotting the offender. Only a psychopath blames his victim for becoming unproductive after being beaten up. "Oh but if the capitalists had only been more altruistic and accepted our socialist vision then the productivity wouldn't fall!"

What happened in Chile is not different from what happened in the Soviet union or what happens in North Korea right now. The mind goes on strike when forced. You can surely blame the North Korean people for waging "economic warfare" against KimJong Il but only psychopaths think like that.
 
No, laissez-faire literally translates as "let be" and it is an idiom which parallels the English idiom "let it be" or "leave us be." I.e. the MEANING of the term is "leave people alone" which is the same as "leave people in peace." Translating idioms is always tricky and if you ask any dual French and English speaker you will learn that I have most certainly been faithful to the meaning of the idiom.

Nonsense and you have the cheek to call yourself a "philosopher"? You're so desperate to win the argument that you'll churn out any rubbish. Is this what they teach you at Objectivist boot camp?

But the discussion technique you are using is one I am very familiar with and I call it focusing on the fly on the wall while ignoring the elephant in the room. That is, you divert the discussion to some irrelevant detail and if you can find even the slightest fault or even something that can be construed to be an error, even if it isn't, you will cease the opportunity greedily so as to avoid dealing with the elephant in the room, the main point to which you have no answer.

This is straight out of Rand. You don't have a coherent argument. Give it up.



This is simply not true. Laissez-faire is the direct cause of eliminating poverty in the world.

Not true at all. All you need do is look at 19c Britain to see that laissez faire contributed to unspeakable poverty and gross social injustice.
 
Yes, you do refer to yourself as a "philosopher". Would you care to tell me which branch of philosophy?
Onar Åm is a long time entrepreneur, philosopher, politician, published author and a well-known figure in the Norwegian blogosphere. His first book "Kampen om Klimaet"(The Climate Bubble) was published in late 2007 by Koloritt.
 
What happened in Chile is not different from what happened in the Soviet union or what happens in North Korea right now. The mind goes on strike when forced. You can surely blame the North Korean people for waging "economic warfare" against KimJong Il but only psychopaths think like that.

The situations in Chile, the USSR and North Korea are entirely seperate from each other, not least because they exist under different condition at different periods in history. The lesson for you is that you can't try to fit everything into a simplistic body of dubious theory that only a relative handful of cult believers take seriously anyway.
 
No, absolutely not. If you look at e.g. the kind of hyperinflation Allende caused (printing money as crazy) and the gross violations he did my nationalizing an enormous amount of private business. These actions alone brought Chile to the brink of civil war, and ultimately led to the kind of military intervention that Pinochet orchestrated. Allende was a criminal and it is no wander that a lot of people were pissed off when he stole their property. You can say that it was the economic warfare against Chile that caused the problems, but thats really a little bit like saying that it is the rape victim's fault that she reacts the way she does to a rape. What Allende did was to rape the country, and large parts of the people reacted to this rape with outrage and preparing for civil war. The United States reacted by coming to the aid of the rape victim by boicotting the offender. Only a psychopath blames his victim for becoming unproductive after being beaten up. "Oh but if the capitalists had only been more altruistic and accepted our socialist vision then the productivity wouldn't fall!"

What happened in Chile is not different from what happened in the Soviet union or what happens in North Korea right now. The mind goes on strike when forced. You can surely blame the North Korean people for waging "economic warfare" against KimJong Il but only psychopaths think like that.

Given that your hero Pinochet actually employed actual rapists to rape female political prisoners, this is a new low for you.
 
Wrong. "Feud'' comes from ''faide'', ''faida'', a germanic word refering to the ''vengeance'' taken by kin.
''Feu'' refers to land held in feudal tenure - notably this is where the word 'fee' comes from: http://www.word-origins.com/definition/fee.html/quote]

Sorry, I wrote wrong: feudum not feud, which is latin for fee or fief.

http://www.shadowedrealm.com/glossary/term/Feudum

But I find it absolutely amazing that you would make a huge fuzz about a spelling error. You even referenced the term "feudal" in which it states: from feudum "feudal estate." Did it never once occur to you that this was was referred to? And instead of focusing on what is IMPORTANT here, namely that feudalism is named after a specific property right (feudum) which is a RIGHT in exchange for a DUTY. This is the essence of feudalism and why I brought the point up in the first place. And what do you do? Do you even care that I have just proved that the people on this forum adhere to what is essentially feudalism? Nope. You focus on the fact that someone forgot to put "um" at the end of "feud." THAT's your focus.

This form of "debate" technique is a variation of a strawman argument (attacking a fringe issue rather than focusing in the most significant point of your opponent first.) But I call it "focus on the fly on the wall, while ignoring the elephant in the room."
 
Given that your hero Pinochet actually employed actual rapists to rape female political prisoners, this is a new low for you.

Didn't they actually train dogs to rape women? Still, that's clearly preferable to some yankee copper baron having his mine nationalised with compensation.

edit - snap!
 
I'm not going to defend actions like these. This is not consistent with defending against communism.

I beg to differ: it is entirely consistent with anti-communism. Does the name Henry Kissinger mean anything to you? How about Suharto? In fact, anyone who got in the way was seen as a "communist".
 
Nonsense and you have the cheek to call yourself a "philosopher"? You're so desperate to win the argument that you'll churn out any rubbish. Is this what they teach you at Objectivist boot camp?

Are you a) seriously saying that "laissez-faire" is NOT an idiom!?!?!? b) even if by some cosmic mistake it should turn out that laissez-faire is not an idiom and should be really be literally translated to "let do" rather than "leave alone"/"leave in peace" are you seriously claiming to base your judgment of me as a *philosopher* on my knowledge of the *French language*!?!?!? Seriously!? You don't see anything remotely absurd about that?

I mean, of all the things you could get me on, all my alleged misconceptions of socialism, THIS is your best argument!? Wow. Wow wow wow. Serious mind blowing moment here.

This is straight out of Rand. You don't have a coherent argument. Give it up.

As opposed to "this is straight out of Rand" which IS a "coherent argument"? In what theory of philosophy is making a mere statement about Rand a "coherent argument"?


Not true at all. All you need do is look at 19c Britain to see that laissez faire contributed to unspeakable poverty and gross social injustice.

Aah, finally something that approaches substance. If I behaved like the people in this thread I would now demand that you provide me with a specific academic reference, or otherwise dismiss your claim as complete fabrication. But I am not going to do that because I've read many books about 19th century Britain and I know what you are referring to, and unlike many of the people on this thread I am interested in learning the TRUTH, not winning a debate with silly arguments.

So to answer this argument: you are right that the conditions of 19th century Britain was absolutely horrible, worse than most third world countries today. But still, the conditions during the 19th century was significantly BETTER than during the 18th and 17th centuries. During the 17th and 18th century the average age of living was by some estimates as low as 25 years. By the mid to late 19th century the average age of living had more than doubled to 50-60 years. Also, during the 19th century there was in addition an explosive population growth. During the 18th century there were only two classes: the upper class and the lower class. By the mid to late 19th century Britain had a sizable middle class, people who came from poor families or had themselves been poor at an earlier age. This completely new phenomenon which had never existed anywhere in the world before, the middle class, had access to banks, they had saving accounts, their kids did not have to work but was instead sent to school, they owned not only a single set of clothes or shoes their whole life as was common in the 18th century, but even had several pairs of clothes, and while not fat, the newly emerged middle class was not hungry.

To a socialist all the facts I just mentioned are completely and utterly irrelevant. All that matters is that there were many people who were living in awful living conditions. But to someone who is actually interested in the truth a whole set of questions arise from these facts. a) what caused the living conditions to improve, longevity to rise and population growth to explode? Why did i significant portion of the population whose ancestors had been dirt poor all of a sudden become quite wealthy? What was new to the 19th century that did not exist in the 18th century? The answer is: capitalism.

Any honest person will conclude that it was capitalism that caused so many people to live longer and become wealthier. The question then immediately becomes: was it capitalism that caused people to live in extreme poverty? Was it capitalism that caused child labor and 12 hour work days? The honest person finds the answer to this by looking whether these things existed PRIOR to capitalism. And lo and behold, in the 17th and 18th centuries people worked 12 hour days or more, there was child labor and people lived in dirt poverty. If you're intellectually honest you will conclude that capitalism did not create these bad conditions, but rather inherited them from the feudal system of the past. In fact, you will celebrate the fact that capitalism CURED these problems. For 10.000 years there was child labor, and then 50-100 years after the rise of capitalism: BAM! Gone. Socialists don't hesitate to take the credit for this, but the honest thinking person asks why socialism and government intervention wasn't able to get rid of child labor until AFTER capitalism had worked its magic.
 
The Bolsheviks and the Nazis were twin ideologies, and you can even see this expressed explicitly in this Nazi worker day emblem from 1934:

http://www.vaticanassassins.org/wp-...ay-Emblem_1934_Fascism-Supports-Communism.jpg

here you can see the swastika in harmonious union with the communist hammer and sickle.

So when I say that socialists are fascists (and vice versa) I have pretty good historic backing for my statement. It is not just something I made up.
Oh. They didn't get the memo down at Karl-Liebknecht-Haus. :(

3nIuuxH93u7veFOcK0blJb.jpg
 
Wrong. "Feud'' comes from ''faide'', ''faida'', a germanic word refering to the ''vengeance'' taken by kin.
''Feu'' refers to land held in feudal tenure - notably this is where the word 'fee' comes from: http://www.word-origins.com/definition/fee.html

Sorry, I wrote wrong: feudum not feud, which is latin for fee or fief.

http://www.shadowedrealm.com/glossary/term/Feudum

But I find it absolutely amazing that you would make a huge fuzz about a spelling error. You even referenced the term "feudal" in which it states: from feudum "feudal estate." Did it never once occur to you that this was was referred to? And instead of focusing on what is IMPORTANT here, namely that feudalism is named after a specific property right (feudum) which is a RIGHT in exchange for a DUTY. This is the essence of feudalism and why I brought the point up in the first place. And what do you do? Do you even care that I have just proved that the people on this forum adhere to what is essentially feudalism? Nope. You focus on the fact that someone forgot to put "um" at the end of "feud." THAT's your focus.

This form of "debate" technique is a variation of a strawman argument (attacking a fringe issue rather than focusing in the most significant point of your opponent first.) But I call it "focus on the fly on the wall, while ignoring the elephant in the room."[/QUOTE]

Actually, you originally used your fallacies about feudalism (etc) as a strawman, to claim ''Thus, you guys, who claim that there can be no rights without duties, are feudalists'' (commas added for clarity).

Thus, you are well and truly hoist by your own petard.
 
One minute you say that laissez-faire is the direct cause of eliminating poverty, and the next you're trying to say it doesn't exist and that governments which have embraced neo-liberalism are really welfare state socialists. You're all over the place, matie.

OR you could simply ask me to explain what I meant. 100% laissez-faire has never existed, just like 100% fascism has never existed. But just like we can evaluate individual laws and institutions as fascist, we can also evaluate them as laissez-faire. So it IS perfectly possible to say that *part* of the laws and institutions were operating in accordance with laissez-faire. In the 19th century, Britain liberalized its laws. Tons of taxes and regulations were removed. It wasn't perfect, very far from it (and the US did a much better job) but it WAS better than what had existed. The elements of laissez-faire that did exist in Britain and elsewhere was the cause of the elimination of poverty in the West. Notice that the country in Europe to which the light of enlightenment came the very last was Russia, as late as the 20th century, but by then it was too late. Socialists were convinced that Russia was a capitalist country when it in fact was a feudalistic country, and they concluded that communism was needed.
 
Are you a) seriously saying that "laissez-faire" is NOT an idiom!?!?!? b) even if by some cosmic mistake it should turn out that laissez-faire is not an idiom and should be really be literally translated to "let do" rather than "leave alone"/"leave in peace" are you seriously claiming to base your judgment of me as a *philosopher* on my knowledge of the *French language*!?!?!? Seriously!? You don't see anything remotely absurd about that?

I mean, of all the things you could get me on, all my alleged misconceptions of socialism, THIS is your best argument!? Wow. Wow wow wow. Serious mind blowing moment here.



As opposed to "this is straight out of Rand" which IS a "coherent argument"? In what theory of philosophy is making a mere statement about Rand a "coherent argument"?




Aah, finally something that approaches substance. If I behaved like the people in this thread I would now demand that you provide me with a specific academic reference, or otherwise dismiss your claim as complete fabrication. But I am not going to do that because I've read many books about 19th century Britain and I know what you are referring to, and unlike many of the people on this thread I am interested in learning the TRUTH, not winning a debate with silly arguments.

So to answer this argument: you are right that the conditions of 19th century Britain was absolutely horrible, worse than most third world countries today. But still, the conditions during the 19th century was significantly BETTER than during the 18th and 17th centuries. During the 17th and 18th century the average age of living was by some estimates as low as 25 years. By the mid to late 19th century the average age of living had more than doubled to 50-60 years. Also, during the 19th century there was in addition an explosive population growth. During the 18th century there were only two classes: the upper class and the lower class. By the mid to late 19th century Britain had a sizable middle class, people who came from poor families or had themselves been poor at an earlier age. This completely new phenomenon which had never existed anywhere in the world before, the middle class, had access to banks, they had saving accounts, their kids did not have to work but was instead sent to school, they owned not only a single set of clothes or shoes their whole life as was common in the 18th century, but even had several pairs of clothes, and while not fat, the newly emerged middle class was not hungry.

To a socialist all the facts I just mentioned are completely and utterly irrelevant. All that matters is that there were many people who were living in awful living conditions. But to someone who is actually interested in the truth a whole set of questions arise from these facts. a) what caused the living conditions to improve, longevity to rise and population growth to explode? Why did i significant portion of the population whose ancestors had been dirt poor all of a sudden become quite wealthy? What was new to the 19th century that did not exist in the 18th century? The answer is: capitalism.

Any honest person will conclude that it was capitalism that caused so many people to live longer and become wealthier. The question then immediately becomes: was it capitalism that caused people to live in extreme poverty? Was it capitalism that caused child labor and 12 hour work days? The honest person finds the answer to this by looking whether these things existed PRIOR to capitalism. And lo and behold, in the 17th and 18th centuries people worked 12 hour days or more, there was child labor and people lived in dirt poverty. If you're intellectually honest you will conclude that capitalism did not create these bad conditions, but rather inherited them from the feudal system of the past. In fact, you will celebrate the fact that capitalism CURED these problems. For 10.000 years there was child labor, and then 50-100 years after the rise of capitalism: BAM! Gone. Socialists don't hesitate to take the credit for this, but the honest thinking person asks why socialism and government intervention wasn't able to get rid of child labor until AFTER capitalism had worked its magic.

I see, if you can't win the argument with logic, then chuck out reams of pointless text in the hope that it will blind your opponent. Risible. This is particularly laughable and proves to me and to anyone else reading this, that you don't bother to read what others have posted and make it up in your head.

Are you a) seriously saying that "laissez-faire" is NOT an idiom!?!?!?

Please indicate where I said or even suggested that. Vous êtes perdu. Non, vous êtes fou!

As opposed to "this is straight out of Rand" which IS a "coherent argument"? In what theory of philosophy is making a mere statement about Rand a "coherent argument"?

You've just proved my point about Rand and those who follow her. Randists aren't much interested in any other philosophers because , in hers and your eyes, they are wrong. Objectivism is not a philosophy, it is a means by which people can justify and rationalise their selfish behaviour and cupidity.

Aah, finally something that approaches substance. If I behaved like the people in this thread I would now demand that you provide me with a specific academic reference, or otherwise dismiss your claim as complete fabrication. But I am not going to do that because I've read many books about 19th century Britain and I know what you are referring to, and unlike many of the people on this thread I am interested in learning the TRUTH, not winning a debate with silly arguments.

You're a smug one, aren't you? Typical Randist. Do your own reading numbnuts.

In fact, you will celebrate the fact that capitalism CURED these problems. For 10.000 years there was child labor, and then 50-100 years after the rise of capitalism: BAM! Gone. Socialists don't hesitate to take the credit for this, but the honest thinking person asks why socialism and government intervention wasn't able to get rid of child labor until AFTER capitalism had worked its magic.

I don't celebrate any system that impoverishes the mind, body or spirit. Capitalism didn't cure anything. Human endeavour did that.
 
Actually, you originally used your fallacies about feudalism (etc) as a strawman, to claim ''Thus, you guys, who claim that there can be no rights without duties, are feudalists'' (commas added for clarity).

Thus, you are well and truly hoist by your own petard.

Explain to me exactly how I was wrong. A debater (I forget which one) claimed that rights cannot exist without duties, and there was great agreement about this among the other socialists on this forum. I simply pointed out that the concept of rights in exchange for duties is precisely feudum, the property right on which feudalism got its name from. So, everyone in here who claims that rights MUST exist together with duties are by definition feudalists, i.e. adherents of feudum. How is that a strawman? Exactly what is wrong about this conclusion? Are you saying that I *can* have certain inalienable rights that I don't need to pay for with duties?
 
So to answer this argument: you are right that the conditions of 19th century Britain was absolutely horrible, worse than most third world countries today. But still, the conditions during the 19th century was significantly BETTER than during the 18th and 17th centuries.

You still labour under the illusion that laissez faire capitalism magically resolved these issues. If you were to travel back in time and talk to a factory or mill worker, you'd probably tell them that they were lying when they described the awful conditions that they lived in.

You're dishonest...and desperate.
 
Oh. They didn't get the memo down at Karl-Liebknecht-Haus. :(

3nIuuxH93u7veFOcK0blJb.jpg

Well, DUH! Fascism/Nazism and communism were political *competitors*. They were so similar that they were competing for the same voters. This is really not that different from protestants warring with catholics in Northern Ireland, or the Sunni vs Shia Muslims. From the outside they all look the same. They are so similar that we have huge problems as outsiders to see any differences. That's exactly how it is with communism vs nazism. They were twin ideologies that to an outsider (e.g. a liberal) seems identical.

I don't understand why you cannot respect this. We liberals have a worldview that is so different from the collectivists that we really don't see the difference between nazism and communism. To us they are the same only with different hats. If nazism and communism seems like polar opposites to you, maybe it is because you are so close to them that you don't see the similarity?
 
They were so similar that they were competing for the same voters. This is really not that different from protestants warring with catholics in Northern Ireland, or the Sunni vs Shia Muslims.

Actually, in pre-1933 Germany, the NSDAP and KPD did not compete for the same voters. As for your analogy between those two parties and the Northern Irish situation, all I can say is that you're a fucking idiot.
 
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