This idea that money is created through demand for loans makes a lot of sense to me. After all, banks exist to make loans - they only take deposits (which in reality are themselves loans) to enable them to make loans. So, the bank wants to make loans so has to attract deposits, by advertising that they will pay interest, etc.
If the system is functioning with high demand for loans, there is never any need for outside intervention to create new money - the money supply grows to fulfill the increasing demand for loans. <snip>. It seems to me that a money supply could in theory grow from a tiny sum of a few quid to billions and trillions in this fashion.
Everything you've said here is bog standard fractional reserve lending - all of which is accomodated within the mainstream theories of money creation. Also throughout all our arguments I've never suggested that the above is not the case - i.e. just a few posts up I said
when that new money starts to circulate within the system, it leaves in its trace a multiple of loans & deposits, all bearing interest.
And
fractional reserve lending is pretty much the same principal as this, except that it's not direct purchases & sales between two parties, but instead they are mediated by the banking system lending & borrowing the money - which in turn creates a build up of assets & liabilities within the system - all on the back of a small amount of central bank money - if one person then repays the £10 loan, that can allow the whole chain to also be repaid without any problem
So there's no real argument here - and the 'debate' about whether central bank money is needed for the money supply to expand through increased velocity/circualtion (exogenous) or not (endogenous) is irrelevant to the basic theory of money supply growing through increased circulation
The main point I've been making in relation to this is that it's not the commercial banks (or central banks) that are the independent variable/actor here, i.e. neither the central or commercial banks can make money circulate if there is no demand for it within the wider economy. And of course the money supply can grow hugely on the base of a relatively smaller amount, this is also a point I've made consistently throughout our arguments.
Then whenever demand in the private sector for loans dips, the govt steps in and itself borrows from the banks in the form of gilts.
This, however is massively confused, your mixing up fiscal & monetary mechanisms - and also the fact that commercial banks own a small proportion of govt debt (pension funds & insurance companies have a far bigger share)
Either way, the aim is to keep the money supply growing by keeping the demand for loans at a rate that is higher than the rate of repayments.
I'd argue the reverse here - the objective is not to keep the money supply growing by creating demand for loans (through fiscal measures) - the objective is to create demand in the economy, which in turn brings with it the necessity for the money supply to grow to accomdate it.
I don't have much time today for this, but I still think my basic premise - that we have a system where money enters the system through the creation of debts with interest owing, and that this system demands inflation in order to function - has legs.
I don't.
I disagree on both logical and empirical grounds
1. Logical: Your whole argument seems to be based on the tail wagging the dog. Despite naming this thread money & value - your whole focus has been on money alone, with value being either non-existent or a mere afterthought in the analysis. Value creation (or non-creation/destruction) is a better starting point for looking at things like this.
In your assertion you state that the simple act of a loan with interest being created, in and off itself, is the fundamental reason for inflation in the ecomomy. You don’t put any analysis on what happens in the wider economy following the creation of that loan - and because of that your analysis is incomplete & flawed. If someone takes out a loan and (in value terms) the loan & interest is paid back out of created value (either from wages for workers or surplus value for capital) along with a bit of profit left over for the borrower - then how can this result in inflation. The marginal amount of value production here is higher than the amount of interest due on the loan. And when the loan is repaid (which effectively decreases the money supply in your terms as there is less loans/deposits) we have a situation where there is less 'money' in the system but more value (as the profit is higher than the interest paid) - so if anything this points to deflation not inflation.
Clearly not everything runs as smoothly as this all the time, but you don't even look at what happens in relation to value creation - you base everything on the fact that a loan has been created and your theory is blind to the real substance of what then happens next. In your theory whether the money from the loan is wasted, eaten, transplanted to mars, used to produce real value or whatever, is not even considered - you simply assert that more loans = more inflation
You also have failed to account for how inflation that is caused by the things I raised in this
post would magically disappear if loans with interest didn't exist.
2. Empirical: Your theory essentially says the more loans & deposits (or money, or things circulating like money) in the system, the higher inflation will be. But if we look at the period from say mid 1990's to 2007 (in say the US and UK). This was a time where a huge amount of money/loans/deposits/ficticious capital were circulating around at incredible speeds (save for the blip of the dotcom crash). This was a result of loose monetary policy, huge (ficticious) banking profits, massive confidence, huge amounts of loan capital flowing in from surpluses in China etc.Now according to your theory we should have been seeing pretty high inflation then, but in fact the reverse was true and inflation was pretty low over that period (the fact that interest rates were fairly low during this period shouldn't detrat from your theory, as the theory is based on volumes of interest bearing loans/depoists circulating - so while perhaps the interest rates were relatively low on them, the fact that the circulation/velocity/mulitplication of them was very high is what's important for your theory)
From 2007 onwards however all that activity ground to a halt, loads of the stuff that was circualting was destroyed because it was ficticious, loans were paid down or defaulted on, so the whole build up through previous circulation came crashing down - now according to your theory we should be seeing a lot less inflation than before, however we are in fact seeing much more.
So when your theory says there should be high inflation we see low inflation and when it says we should see low inflation we see high inflation. It doesn't appear to be a particular useful theory for explaining real world phenomena
So, so far, I can't see any support for your theory, either on logical/rational or empirical grounds
While I'm here I can't resist a comment on the exogenous & endogenous (and possibly the erogenous) argument - as there are some interesting things coming out of looking at this. One one hand in terms of end result I can argue that there is in essence not much difference between the two (edogenous effectively says that loans create deposits whereas exogenous says deposits enable loans - same end situation though, lots of deposits & lots of loans, each dependent on the other, and all cancelling out to leave a zero sum game)
However on the other hand (and in addition to various technical reasons for disliking the theory) I have knee jerk ideological reaction to the core/thrust of the endogenous/circuitism theory as I see it as providing ideological succour to the idea of a purified neo-liberal view of the world where the state & central bank are not required - i.e. the view that markets, money, capitalism can function naturely, without the state crutch, and are effectively a natural thing.
Endogenous/circuitism theory & models eschew the need for state/central bank activity in the economy and instead posit that that commercial banks can lend (without the need for any central bank money to exist) purely because of their social role (i.e. people put trust in it because of what it is). However commercial banks don't just appear from heaven, supernaturally endowed with a social role, they only have it because the state/central banks stand squarely & solidly behind it. So the basic premise of endogenous/circuitism implicitly relies upon something that it explicitly rejects (yet very obviously & tangibly exists)
It seems to be a theory which, along with the likes of the austrian economists, leads to the conclusion that the real world can't possibly exist in theory - and what use is such are such theories