See again you are picking up on the trees and missing the wood. It doesn't really matter that the bank run was triggered by the emergency loan from the BofE and not the other way around
in fact, it completely negates your explanation that it was the failure of Northern Rock to get the loan they needed. They got the loan they needed: however, they also got a bank run, and that killed them
"something that Jazz laughably claims doesn't happen at all" -
please stop putting words into my mouth.
Are you not going to have a crack at my problem? It's really not too complicated.
How does cash pay anything as an investment? Its not doing anything and is going down in relative value due to inflation ( made worse by central banks printing more of the stuff). They hold cash cos its a legal requirement. And the amounts they held help in their increased obligtions to meet their liabilites. And not holding goventment debts on their assest sheet also helped lower the ratio.
no, I thought it meant exactly what you say it means
Actually, you're right about this, I meant to say cash reserve requirements, not the capital reserves.
eg in 2010 'banks told to double their cash reserves', then low and behold, the bank of england steps in and swaps hundreds of billions of pounds of cash with the banks in exchange for government gilts.
The point still stands though, in that if the banks hadn't been lending cash they didn't have then they'd not be needing to swap gilts for vast quantities of cash in order to build market confidence in their ability to meet any likely level of cash payments on demand, which essentially is what this was about.
I did explain why - no money has been created because there is still only £1000 in circulation. If you think that is mistaken, show me where and how the additional money exists and I will be happy to discuss that with you.
Suppose that customer 1 makes a one-year deposit of £1,000 in Bank A, which bank A lends to customer 2 for one year or less. If any part of this £1,000 finds its way into a time-deposit in another bank, then on your theory money has been created!
Don't you think this is probably the main driver? Pretty important to the state short-term at the moment.The other, less publicised driver, is of course making sure there is plenty demand for state debt to ward off any 'market vigilantism' and whatever. .
love detective said:To properly understand the wider context of all of this, this narrow focus on everything being down to the banks needs to be loosened somewhat as it blocks the ability to see the wider structural/framework in which all this sites. This is why I rail so much against the likes of Jazz who are unable, due to their infatuation with banks & money, to see the big picture. How often do you hear Jazz talk about Capital & Labour for example, or Exploitation or Value? Never
i think it's the main unspoken/unstated driver yes (it is effectively monetising the debt, but they can't admit to this) - having a deep pocketed buyer in the market for state debt when state debt is having to be issued at ever increasing amounts because austerity is increasing not decreasing the deficit, is incredibly useful in the short termDon't you think this is probably the main driver? Pretty important to the state short-term at the moment.
100% reserve is command lead economies, the closest we got to that in the last 100 years was the communist systems of the soviets and China (not current China). What tech development did they contribute to sustainting a population above an arbitary figure of say 4 bil.They didn't. all development, be it agricutualaral, medical, engineering grew out of speculative captialism. It will be hard enough sustaining current population levels without abandoning the only framework that has helped keep Malthus in check?
eta yes the satelitte but even that that got souped up through speculative capitalism
Let me repeat an example which lovedetective failed to comment on before.
Bank A loans Andrew £1000, who draws on it by giving it to Bertie, who has an account in Bank B.
Simultaneously, Bank B lends Bill £1000, who draws on it by giving it to Anthony, who has an account in Bank A.
What has happened? I challenge lovedetective or Jean-Luc to describe the accounting entries in Bank A, Bank B, and the central bank, the change in total money supply, and where it came from.
So, suddenly, when "full reserve banking" is introduced, the money that is lent starts to circulate whereas it doesn't now!No it hasn't. There is only ever £1000 in circulation.If I have understood "full reserve banking" properly, what it would mean that under it banks would only be able to lend from non-instant-access savings accounts ("time-deposits"). This could work (even if the arguments used to justify in are based on a fallacy), but it wouldn't stop what you call "money-creation" by banks. Suppose that customer 1 makes a one-year deposit of £1,000 in Bank A, which bank A lends to customer 2 for one year or less. If any part of this £1,000 finds its way into a time-deposit in another bank, then on your theory money has been created!
Yes, that is what I'm saying, but I'd just call it "banking" as that's the principle on which banks operate.I don't really understand what you mean here. If you are saying that the banks can create new loans corresponding to the fraction of (demand) deposits that is not likely to be withdrawn, and get away with it then that is simply fractional-reserve banking.
Banking is based on the assumption that depositors will be leaving most of their money in the bank and not withdrawing it. This is why most money deposited can be treated as if it were a "time-deposit" and lent out. There is nothing dishonourable or dishonest about this. Actually, what happens is that all the money deposited, whether in a current account or a time-deposit, goes into one pool out of which a bank makes loans and other payments.If they are to treat the deposits as time-deposits, that means that they will not allow the original depositor to withdraw his money on demand. In which case, if the original depositor made a demand deposit, the bank is in dishonour; if he made a time-deposit, this is full-reserve banking.
I imagine you think that any extra money needed will be done by the government or the central bank "printing" it. Hello (higher) inflation.It would certainly restrict high-street bank lending (money created as debt) and I say that would be a extremely good thing. There is no reason why we cannot create the money we need another and far better way.
i agree. It's just that, if it's left to the government to decide rather than to the spontaneous operation of economic forces, the chances of getting it wrong and issuing too much money are higher. Hope this doesn't sound too much like Hayek on BBC2 last night.to be fair there's nothing inherently more inflationary about govt/central bank creating money than the financial system increasing the money supply through circulation.
the diesel engine, the jet engine- government actually blocked Whittle, the steam turbine Parsons had to have fun at Spithead to get that to work, the integrated circuit -state built computers ended up in bits, cant think of any state lead big pharmaceuticals. The internet is a great example spectulative over command, bare bones may have been there but none of DMU's saw the potential for the all singing and dancing internet we have to day, that took the imaginations and energies with as few roadblocks as possible.WTF is this?
100% reserve = command economy? Technological innovation grew out of speculative capitalism? I don't even know where to start with that one. Internet = state developed. Computers = state developed. Nuclear power = state developed. In fact I challenge you to name a single major, revolutionary technological breakthrough that grew out of speculative capitalism. And I'd also be interested to hear why you think 100% reserves means a command economy.
There's several technical innovations happened during the collective era in China to my knowledge - new strains of high-yield rice, various stuff in medicine etc. I can look them all up if you really insist, but really the point is you're spotting the need capitalism has for constant innovation to keep the cycle going, and while we celebrate the few useful things that have come with that the vast bulk is new flavours of toothpaste style waste.the diesel engine, the jet engine- government actually blocked Whittle, the steam turbine Parsons had to have fun at Spithead to get that to work, the integrated circuit -state built computers ended up in bits, cant think of any state lead big pharmaceuticals. The internet is a great example spectulative over command, bare bones may have been there but none of DMU's saw the potential for the all singing and dancing internet we have to day, that took the imaginations and energies with as few roadblocks as possible.
With 100% reserve, as outlined in Jazz's IMF working paper. For a new venture, you go and see your bank and they then act as advocates to a government bureaucracy that has final say on whether the money is printed for the venture to go ahead. How can that not be a command economy?
Nuclear is a point to you, though if it was unplanned we'd have thorium reactors by now
With 100% reserve, as outlined in Jazz's IMF working paper. For a new venture, you go and see your bank and they then act as advocates to a government bureaucracy that has final say on whether the money is printed for the venture to go ahead. How can that not be a command economy?
Agriculture is an odd one, states have always prioritized seed devlopment, but I don't think the likes of Monsanto came up with GM cos they were told to, I don't know anything about Chinese medicine.There's several technical innovations happened during the collective era in China to my knowledge - new strains of high-yield rice, various stuff in medicine etc. I can look them all up if you really insist, but really the point is you're spotting the need capitalism has for constant innovation to keep the cycle going, and while we celebrate the few useful things that have come with that the vast bulk is new flavours of toothpaste style waste.
In terms of ownership, no, not intially. But then you'll need a mortgage, ok'd of course by the Deptartment of Investment: HousingOk. Still not a command economy in the sense of the old Soviet Union or present-day Cuba.
But again, where is the essential difference between this and what happens now? We currently have mortgages cleared by the Department of Making the most amount of money out of us (the Bank) - and this operates in such a way as to rip us the fuck off. Housing and its financing is something eminently suitable to collective control, imo - involving as it does the distribution of an essential, limited resource.IBut then you'll need a mortgage, ok'd of course by the Deptartment of Investment: Housing
you're misrepresenting my point.Your initial point was that QE was to do with 'meeting the banks existing liabilities'
The only way banks could get access to QE money was if they already had sufficient assets on their books that they could sell to get cash to then fund any upcoming liability payments. So in that sense the liabilities are already 'covered' through the fact that there are sufficient assets to cover them. That's the key distinction between a liquidity problem/issue and a solvency/capital issue - your initial posts seemed to mistake the former for the later
If a bank did not have sufficient assets (in any form) to cover its liabilities then it would be insolvent and no amount of QE would be any use to it in 'meeting the banks existing liabilities'
bail them out with enough new hard cash to allow them to continue paying out to their customers
If a similar thing happens to all or most banks though, then there's nobody left to provide the short term lending of hard currency to the banks that needs it, and you get a credit crunch situation that can only be eased via the release / printing of vast quantities of new hard currency just to meet the banks existing liabilities
you're misrepresenting my point.
I was specifically talking about their cash liabilties, not whether on paper they had enough long term investments to match up with their customers bank balances or not.
Unless you think people would readily accept being paid in a torn off strip of a government bond, or promisary note backed by interest payments on a loan they've made etc
the credit crunch was largely about lack of access to actual hard currency, both partly caused by the risk of, and at risk of fuelling the potential for a run on the banks of sufficient size for them to actually run out of the means to pay out in cash on request.
Also from a government and banks point of view, the situation would have rapidly got pretty dire if all the banks had tried flogging off a significant proportion of their government bonds / gilts on the open market at precisely the same time as the government was trying to release huge volumes of new bonds and gilts onto the same markets.
It'd have resulted in interests rates rising massively for government borrowing, and the banks having to flog their lower yielding gilts and bonds off at a significant loss, which would then have impacted on their reserves ratio requirements.
Quantitative easing was therefore a win win for both sides, but the ultimate driving force for it IMO was the recognition of the need to inject huge quantities of hard cash into the banks, and that without QE the banks would be forced to achieve this in ways that would negatively impact on government's ability to borrow at low interest rates.
as the figures on the ground clearly demonstrate.
The figures speak for themselves, with £275 billion QE injected upto the end of 2011, resulting in £100bn additional lending to business vs 2009, but still at only 2/3 of the rate in 2006... and 2012's lending rate currently running not that much above 2009.
The other £175 billion went on boosting the cash reserves, and helping to pump up the commodities market (and that's ignoring the multiplier affects discussed previously, and working on the basis that they actually did lend out £100 million on cash).
http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/publications/Documents/other/monetary/trendsJuly12.pdf
I think (and LD is probably the best person to give a definitive view on this) is that there is a danger of placing too much emphasis on how much “cash” a bank holds at any particular time at the expense of looking at the overall state of its balance sheet.
As LD pointed out, Northern Rock sought BoE help before the run on the bank. The problem wasn’t caused because it didn’t have enough cash to pay out to customers (the run was simply a symptom) but because of the dire state of its balance sheet which meant it was technically insolvent. The root cause of this was a bad mortgage book emanating from its policy of lending to home buyers based on ridiculous multiples of their income (in some cases, self-certified).
It wasn’t the BoE increasing liquidity that saved NR in the long-term, but the Government’s takeover which allowed the “toxic” loans to separated out, taken off the balance sheet, and then placed into a “bad bank”. NR then became solvent again and continued to trade with the taxpayer owning both the “good” and “bad” parts of the bank as separate entities, with the “good" bit later sold off to Virgin at a loss. (I assume the Govt still owns the “bad” bit, btw).
The BoE pumping liquidity into NR wasn’t just to enable NR to pay out to any depositor queuing at the door, but to deal with the short-term problem of preventing a run spreading to all banks and the chaos that would have ensued. There was an argument that NR should have been allowed to go under as warning to other institutions not to be so reckless (hence the discussion about moral hazard and banks being "too big to fail").
The credit crunch wasn’t caused so much by how much “cash” any particular bank had at any particular time (which changes minute by minute, if not second by second) but by the banks collectively being unwilling to lend to each other as they couldn’t be sure whether the institution they were lending to was actually solvent. Who would want to lend to an insolvent firm? Under such circumstances NR would not have been able to raise cash on the wholesale markets at anything like a sensible interest rate, if at all.
If NR's balance sheet had been incredibly strong, but it had a short-term liqudity problem, it could have gone to the markets to borrow. But it wasn't, so it couldn't. In effect its solvency problem caused its liquidity problem, not the other way round.
Then the BoE stepped on a short-term basis as a “lender of last resort". But this did not deal with the bank's longer-term structural problems, realting to the state of its balance sheet, which was sorted out by the Government at later date as outlined above.
But LD would be able to correct me if I’m wrong (please fell free to do so) and add in any other relevant info.
do you also believe in the tooth fairy?it was about swapping gilts for cash with the banks in the hope that they would then create new assets in the shape of loans to customers/business with that money.
I beg to differ btw.I'm sorry but i'm not misrepresenting anything.
Well indeed. There is an extra £2000 in circulation : £1000 in Bertie's account in Bank B, and £1000 in Anthony's account in Bank A.Bank A makes a payment out (a loan) which is covered by a payment in from Bank B. Bank B makes a payment out (another loan) which is covered by a payment from Bank A. I imagine this is happening all the time as banks make payments out and receive payments in. In fact it happens every day when at the end of the day banks clear payments each owes each other. What's so special about that?
As not all payments out are loans, your scenario works equally if Andrew asks Bank A to settle an invoice for £1000 from Bertie who then pays it into Bank B while Bank B pays an invoice for £1000 which Bill owes Anthony who pays it into Bank A. Or, more likely, this will all be done by electronic transfers.
The Bank of England is not involved in either case (but would be if, at the end of the day, a bank found itself in the red, whether this was due to making a loan or settling an invoice).
As to the change in the "money supply", since the assumption is that bank loans are counted as part of it, in your example this has increased by £2000, but there's some double-counting going on.
Because in that instance the total sum of the four client's bank accounts is exactly the same as before.But why isn't the "money supply" increased when the payments out are not loans but settling invoices?