I think for a Marxist, a mode of production, is defined by the class relationships to the means of production. Whether that property/means of production is held privately by individuals acting as a warring band of brothers, a class, or collectively by a bureaucracy acting as a warring band of brothers, a class, does not negate the nature of the mode of production. Marx said as much, I have been told.
So what I am asking is, did the church's collective ownership of property, negate the nature of it's fudal mode of production? If no, why does the same change under capitalism negate the capitalist mode of production?