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Money and value

littlebabyjesus

one of Maxwell's demons
I'm starting a new thread on this to give it a bit of a fresh start. It concerns the way money is created and how value is attached to it.


Firstly, about money. Money has no value until it is spent. A measure of the wealth of a nation comes from adding up all the transactions that take place in any given time-period.

So to work out the wealth of a nation, you have to add up the value of all the transactions taking place in any given period, but then you also need a measure of how much money is worth - and you do that by taking a basket of goods and services and seeing how much they cost in that given timeframe.

And excluded from that have to be transactions that merely involve the borrowing of money. If I borrow £100 from the bank, that money has no value until I try to spend it. Indeed I do not find out what the value of the money is until I come to spend it.


The creation of the symbol to which value is to be attached is the act of a third party to any transaction - a bank of some description. One capitalist may agree to hand over capital to another capitalist, but they need an agreed system of representation by which to do this. The capitalists themselves do not create the symbol - what they do rather is attach value to the symbol by accepting it in return for real goods or services. They obtain the symbol to be handed over from the third party, which demands interest as the price for its service.

But what is given back to the bank is merely the symbol once again, and only the banks can create the symbol - others can make value but they cannot print money. So even if there is growth, if a bank has put 100 groats into the system for value to be attached to it and demands 110 groats in return, that same bank or another bank somewhere else will have to lend that same person or another person somewhere else the extra 10 groats. If there has been growth to match the interest, the extra money, when it is spent, will represent that extra wealth and the purchasing value of one groat will remain the same. But if there is no growth, there are now 110 groats in the system to represent the same total value, so you have inflation. If the bank has put the initial 100 groats into the system on the basis that it values an asset of the borrower at that level, when it comes to reloan the 110 groats, it has to do that by valuing the same asset at 110. Again, inflation.

The bank gains from this process through growth, because if there is growth, the real value of the assets against which the money is borrowed needs to go up. In return for a loan to cover the interest on the previous loan, the initial asset plus something else must be put up as security. If the debtor defaults on the debt, the bank takes possession of the assets. If it does this after, say, 100 years of steady growth, it has enabled itself to take possession of a far larger bunch of assets than those it initially created the money against.



If anyone is bothered to, can they explain what is wrong with the above scenario. It is the basis for my contention that the action of lending money at interest is the fundamental driver of inflation.
 
The bank gains from this process through growth, because if there is growth, the real value of the assets against which the money is borrowed needs to go up. In return for a loan to cover the interest on the previous loan, the initial asset plus something else must be put up as security. If the debtor defaults on the debt, the bank takes possession of the assets. If it does this after, say, 100 years of steady growth, it has enabled itself to take possession of a far larger bunch of assets than those it initially created the money against.
Most lending is unsecured lending, there are no assets involved. There are more credit cards than mortgages, surely.
 
In the UK, most debt is owed in the form of mortgages - more than 2/3.

The statistics, recorded at the end of April 2011, also showed that the average UK household has outstanding debt totalling £15,618 excluding mortgages. The average amount of debt per household when mortgages are included in the calculations is a whopping £55,854.

link

That's only talking about personal debt, though. I may be wrong to think this, but wouldn't most business debt be secured debt? Not many banks are willing to fund business activities on a credit-card basis, are they?
 
On the bright side, that's a completely new theory of economics, and so if you are right, you will become famous.

The problem is that it's generally held that high interest rates reduce inflation by dampening demand, while a fall in interest boosts demand and so is inflationary. So you may find yourself founding no more than a minor school.
 
It seems to me that raising interest rates is a double-edged weapon, dampening demand short-term, but forcing people to put their prices up long-term in order to pay the extra interest on their loans.

By my reasoning (and it might be wrong), assuming there is no default, in the long term, a loan made with zero interest is neutral inflation-wise since the same amount is repaid as loaned. With a stable level of borrowing, an equilibrium of sorts ought to be set up. But if there is any interest due, someone somewhere is going to have to borrow the extra money for that debt to be paid in full, setting up a spiral of ever-increasing debt. And if the amount of interest due is more than can be provided for by growth - which in reality it invariably is - that extra amount being put into the system will result in inflation.

I may be wrong. I may be wrong about all this, tbf.
 
In the UK, most debt is owed in the form of mortgages - more than 2/3.



link

That's only talking about personal debt, though. I may be wrong to think this, but wouldn't most business debt be secured debt? Not many banks are willing to fund business activities on a credit-card basis, are they?
You are correct, I was assuming by quantity, not overall amount. What I should've said was more individual debts are unsecured, rather than the aggregate amount. Or at least I would assume.

As for business debt, I really don't know, but from what little I do, there's a hell of a lot of unsecured debt. Primarily because it's often based on things like projected cashflow - my last company went bust because the bank stopped lending during the financial crash. The lending was only month-to-month to cover cashflow requirements anyway, the company had existed that way for years, we got big projects sporadically and needed finance to pay the wages in the lean times. It worked fine until everything imploded and the bank that likes to say "Yes" decided to say "No", so I got made redundant.

Given that most companies in the UK are small businesses, like the one I worked for (and got made redundant from), I'm guessing this is not a unique situation.
 
You also need to allow for external versus internal inflation. As most big ticket items are priced in dollars the £/$ exchange rate has a large affect on price changes.
 
You also need to allow for external versus internal inflation. As most big ticket items are priced in dollars the £/$ exchange rate has a large affect on price changes.

Yes, you do. But that ought to work pretty much equally both ways, shouldn't it - the external pressure should sometimes be inflationary and sometimes deflationary. The current situation is like that - external pressure is causing inflation (and also the pound is weak - which is also an inflationary pressure). But at other times, the external pressure should work the other way - the influx of cheaper Chinese goods, for instance, is an example of a deflationary pressure (and not just for the cheapest goods - as a result of imports from Asia, musical instruments are much cheaper now than they were 30 years ago). Yet when it's all added up, we always have inflation, never deflation, so the internal pressures of any economic system that has any degree of autonomy must generally be inflationary.
 
Well, Japan has had near-zero interest rates, near-zero growth and near-zero inflation in the last two decades or so. But part of my case is the fact that very low interest rates would in the long term be expected to produce very little inflation.
 
Yes, you do. But that ought to work pretty much equally both ways, shouldn't it - the external pressure should sometimes be inflationary and sometimes deflationary. The current situation is like that - external pressure is causing inflation (and also the pound is weak - which is also an inflationary pressure). But at other times, the external pressure should work the other way - the influx of cheaper Chinese goods, for instance, is an example of a deflationary pressure (and not just for the cheapest goods - as a result of imports from Asia, musical instruments are much cheaper now than they were 30 years ago). Yet when it's all added up, we always have inflation, never deflation, so the internal pressures of any economic system that has any degree of autonomy must generally be inflationary.
In theory yes, but it's "animal spirits" "market sentiment" territory.
As bioboy said deflation hit Japan and could've happened here and in USA. Quantitative Easing was an attempt to stop deflation as inflation is easier to deal with.
 
Well, Japan has had near-zero interest rates, near-zero growth and near-zero inflation in the last two decades or so. But part of my case is the fact that very low interest rates would in the long term be expected to produce very little inflation.
No Japan has had high growth at times.
 
It might still happen here. As I understand it, one of the reasons Japan keeps lurching into deflation is that its currency is so strong and remains strong despite the best efforts of the Japanese to weaken it. A strong currency is a deflationary pressure.
 
It might still happen here. As I understand it, one of the reasons Japan keeps lurching into deflation is that its currency is so strong and remains strong despite the best efforts of the Japanese to weaken it. A strong currency is a deflationary pressure.
USA and UK are following a policy of competitive currency depreciation to erode their external debts and to make their exports more competitive.

Edit: low interest rates would in the long term be expected to produce very little inflation if the country was a net exporter so the currency was appreciating.
 
USA and UK are following a policy of competitive currency depreciation to erode their external debts and to make their exports more competitive.
Yes, I know. We'll see if it works. If everyone is trying to devalue their currencies at the same time, it might not! Germany appears dead set on keeping the euro down in value for its exports to thrive.
 
Yes, I know. We'll see if it works. If everyone is trying to devalue their currencies at the same time, it might not! Germany appears dead set on keeping the euro down in value for its exports to thrive.
It's relative. Everyone cannot do. Brazil is unable to stop the Real appreciating against the Dollar.
 
its a symbolic token to represent a sharing of effort

except it isn't just that, but in a nut shell, that's my take on it.

lend us a fiver you cunt anyway :mad:
 
nice one fellah.

still don't trust that lbj fellah, starting threads like its fecking live aid or thread aid or something.

needs to pick his game up imo.
 
I don't think I agree with almost any of your OP, starting from its first real paragraph.

Money is abstracted labour and goods. The value was created when the labour was expended and the goods created. This value continues to exist whilst the abstraction is being stored.

I'm not sure there is any point continuing through the logic chain when the first principle appears dodgy.
 
Money is abstracted labour and goods.

I don't know what that means. Money is a symbol to which value is attached by people who use it to represent the value of labour and goods.

How is 'money is abstracted labour and goods' different from that?
 
Not necessarily any different, with caveats about talking at cross-purposes.

So if it is representing the value of labour and goods, it doesn't cease to represent that value because it isn't being used right this second.

Or, if it does, you could make all your arguments substituting any other tangible asset, such as grain, for "money"
 
By only talking about the value of money when it is spent, you are gaining a measure of the amount of goods and services that have been passed from one person to another as a particular amount of money has changed hands. If I borrow £100 from a bank, what value does that money have? It has been created literally out of thin air - the push of a button on a computer. It has no value attached to it yet - and if it turns out that at the very second I was borrowing that £100, everyone else was doing the same thing and the money supply had taken a sudden spike, I might find when I come to spend it that it buys fewer goods and services than I thought it would.

You measure how rich someone is by measuring how much money passes through them, not how much money they have. Money only really makes sense to me in that way - as a measure of 'value per unit of time'. We earn £x per week. So it's not really fair to call someone who owns a house worth £1 million pounds a millionaire because they aren't selling the house, and they might not sell it for another decade or another century. Again, the house's value can only be measured when it is sold and if it is only sold after 20 years, that really represents a rate of income of £50,000 per year over that period, plus perhaps an amount representing rent you'd have to pay if you didn't own it - not a millionaire's income at all. By contrast, someone who earns £1m per year and spends it all may rarely have much money in the bank, but is genuinely very rich when you measure all the goods and services they have bought.
 
It is something that we accept in return for labour and so we measure how much our labour is worth at the time of that transaction by a calculation of what we think we will in turn be able to exchange for the money. But the actual value of the work done exists for the other person - in their roof being fixed, or whatever. If anything money is 'anti-value' - it's a uom (you owe me, where the 'you' is 'the world') for value.
 
No. It is a serious attempt at understanding how value is attached to money, which isn't a straightforward question, I would suggest.
 
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