What if your wealth is 0? Do you become (joint) supreme dictator or something?
so the richest person could buy a load of votes for very little, several tens of thousands of pounds, which distributed to dolees would enable the rich people to wield even more power out of all proportion to their numberYour vote multiplier = the richest person in your country's personal wealth / your own personal wealth.
Do you think a system based on the above equation would tend towards equality?
so the richest person could buy a load of votes for very little, several tens of thousands of pounds, which distributed to dolees would enable the rich people to wield even more power out of all proportion to their number
yes, he's suggesting that. but if the poorest people have the most votes then buying them will be cheaper.I think he's suggesting the opposite, that We the People would have more votes than the Stinking Aristos.
But it's so hard to tell with these loons these days.
Why would people sell their power for peanuts, when they could instead gain far more money by using that power for their own interests?...if the poorest people have the most votes then buying them will be cheaper...
why do some working class people vote tory?Why would people sell their power for peanuts, when they could instead gain far more money by using that power for their own interests?
Who said anything about socialism? Have there ever been voting systems used like the one described?engels, who thought that socialism could be voted into power, agreed with you. but he was wrong too.
shh!The poorest sections of society already have more votes than the richest, surely?
I am asking a simple question: why would the poorest 5% (for example) sell their votes for peanuts when these votes would give them so much power over the entire countries finances that they could get as much as they wanted for themselves (at least until the next bunch of 'poorest people' did the same)?
But we are discussing a theoretical situation here.Because they know that the owners of the money would just ignore the election and tell them to fuck off.
So how would you describe the situation where income and wealth was continually redistributed fairly evenly across the entire population within a country? Are you saying that it is actually *impossible* to do, and if so why? Would this situation continue to be described as 'capitalism'?The first mistake here is suggesting that it may be possible to be equal under capitalism.
Who said anything about socialism? Have there ever been voting systems used like the one described?
I am asking a simple question: why would the poorest 5% (for example) sell their votes for peanuts when these votes would give them so much power over the entire countries finances that they could get as much as they wanted for themselves (at least until the next bunch of 'poorest people' did the same)?
The answer to the OP is that a political system like this would indeed see a rapid trend towards wealth equality.
You may be right - in which case that's the reason why it's never been tried.
You might be wrong though - maybe there'd be a kind of free loader effect/prisoners dilemma, whereby people realise that just them selling their vote won't change the outcome and they can't stop others assuming the same, which leads to enough people selling to make it worth the toff's while.
Kind of like this:
Bob has 200 votes because he's skint as fuck. He knows there's millions more with 200 votes each. Rich bloke offers £200 for his votes. He knows his votes won't be the difference between the nice woolly egalitarian party getting in and the nasty right wing bastard party getting in so he thinks fuck it - I'll sell - and he's even more likely to sell when he realises that the toff is offering all the others with 200 votes loadsamoney, and so bob thinks 'fuck that - I'm not gonna be the only one not selling my vote when the toff's bought everyone else's so he can elect the nasty right wing bastard party - I'll end up £200 down and we'll still get a nasty right wing bastard party government'.
There needs to be some starting point with income inequality, where everyone is assigned their voting weight for the upcoming election. Clearly anyone who doesn't sell their vote will be voting in people who want to reduce inequality - that's the only platform those at the bottom are going to vote for. If the society is anything like ours at its starting point, there will be far more people at the bottom end of the wealth scale than the top end. The votes of those at the top end will be essentially worthless.
Why would people sell their power for peanuts, when they could instead gain far more money by using that power for their own interests?
Why is it silly? It's just discussing a theoretical situation or idea, like a vast amount of political thinkers have done throughout history.this is a very silly thread
The DWP make you fill out a form detailing all your finances before you can make a claim for benefits, so while it isn't exact (for example their ignore things like car ownership) it is far from impossible to do.good starting point would be to define personal wealth
Have they ever been voting under a system like the one outlined?I've never seen any evidence that people vote in their own interests. Certainly not when they've been fed a constant diet of crap telling them that their interests are the same as the top 1%.
Irrelevant - if their interests are their interests and people unfailingly vote for them this would be demonstrated behaviour in all systems we have had up to now. It's not.Have they ever been voting under a system like the one outlined?
People vote tactically - they pick from the viable options on offer. Under a system like the one on offer their options would probably be very different from what they normally are.Irrelevant - if their interests are their interests and people unfailingly vote for them this would be demonstrated behaviour in all systems we have had up to now. It's not.
Have they ever been voting under a system like the one outlined?