I'm not surprised it's come up before, but I don't remember seeing it, so no. I'm interested in the parity (or lack of) between the two.
This is why I ask, because by any measure (a) the implementation and likely outcomes of Brexit have materially changed since it was proposed, and (b) people have clearly been misled. Whether that has happened to an extent that it passes your tests on the same basis, I don't know, and it's inherently difficult to judge because of the intangibility of both the 'what is Brexit?' question and the developing answer. That's not to say a second referendum is wise, or easy to frame, or should be carried out now, which is all problematic, but it does seem like you might have a different approach to one than the other.